STT 201

Business Statistics

TU BBA · Semester 3 · BBA curriculum effective from 2021

Requirement
required
Credits
3
Questions
41 questions

Chapter-wise questions

41 past questions across 7 units

Open a chapter to study questions grouped by unit and syllabus topic, with step-by-step solutions.

chapter-wise questions loaded.

Unit 2: Describing Data Using Numerical Measures

Report problem
  1. Asked on 2024 Exam[1 marks]2024 paper

    Find the quartile deviation if first and third quartiles are 18 and 30 respectively.

    View model answerHide model answer

    Quartile Deviation (QDQD):

    Given:

    • First Quartile (Q1Q_1) = 1818
    • Third Quartile (Q3Q_3) = 3030

    Formula:

    QD=Q3−Q12QD = \frac{Q_3 - Q_1}{2}

    Calculation:

    QD=30−182=122=6QD = \frac{30 - 18}{2} = \frac{12}{2} = \mathbf{6}

    Final Answer: The Quartile Deviation is 6.

  2. Asked on 2024 Exam[1 marks]2024 paper

    In a moderately asymmetrical distribution, the mode and mean are 32 and 35 respectively. Calculate the median.

    View model answerHide model answer

    Calculation of Median from Mode and Mean:

    Given:

    • Mode=32\text{Mode} = 32
    • Mean=35\text{Mean} = 35

    Empirical Formula:

    Mode=3Median−2Mean\text{Mode} = 3\text{Median} - 2\text{Mean}

    Calculation:

    32=3Median−2(35)32 = 3\text{Median} - 2(35)
    32=3Median−7032 = 3\text{Median} - 70
    3Median=32+70=1023\text{Median} = 32 + 70 = 102
    Median=1023=34\text{Median} = \frac{102}{3} = \mathbf{34}

    Final Answer: The median of the distribution is 34.

  3. Asked on 2024 Exam[1 marks]2024 paper

    Calculate the Pearson’s Coefficient of skewness when mean, mode and standard deviation are 25, 20 and 10 respectively.

    View model answerHide model answer

    Pearson’s Coefficient of Skewness:

    Given:

    • Mean=25\text{Mean} = 25
    • Mode=20\text{Mode} = 20
    • Standard Deviation (σ)=10\text{Standard Deviation } (\sigma) = 10

    Formula:

    Skp=Mean−ModeσSk_p = \frac{\text{Mean} - \text{Mode}}{\sigma}

    Calculation:

    Skp=25−2010=510=+0.5Sk_p = \frac{25 - 20}{10} = \frac{5}{10} = \mathbf{+0.5}

    Final Answer: Pearson’s coefficient of skewness is +0.5 (moderately positively skewed).

  4. Asked on 2024 Exam[1 marks]2024 paper

    If first quartile and third quartile of a distribution are 28 and 52 and their 90th and 10th percentiles are 61 and 17 respectively then, find the value of kurtosis.

    View model answerHide model answer

    Calculation of Percentile Coefficient of Kurtosis:

    Given:

    • Q1=28Q_1 = 28, Q3=52Q_3 = 52
    • P90=61P_{90} = 61, P10=17P_{10} = 17

    Formula:

    K=QDP90−P10=Q3−Q12P90−P10K = \frac{QD}{P_{90} - P_{10}} = \frac{\frac{Q_3 - Q_1}{2}}{P_{90} - P_{10}}

    Calculation:

    QD=52−282=242=12QD = \frac{52 - 28}{2} = \frac{24}{2} = 12
    P90−P10=61−17=44P_{90} - P_{10} = 61 - 17 = 44
    K=1244=311≈0.2727K = \frac{12}{44} = \frac{3}{11} \approx \mathbf{0.2727}

    Final Answer: The coefficient of kurtosis is 0.2727 (since 0.2727>0.2630.2727 > 0.263, it is leptokurtic).

  5. Asked on 2024 Exam[3 marks]2024 paper

    The following table represents the weekly expenditure of 100 families.

    Expenditure 0-20 20-40 40-60 60-80 80-100
    No. of Families 14 ? 27 ? 15

    If the mean value is 48 find the missing frequencies.

    View model answerHide model answer

    Finding Missing Frequencies When Mean = 48:

    Given Data:

    • Total families (NN) = 100100
    • Mean expenditure (Xˉ\bar{X}) = 4848

    Let the missing frequency of class 20–40 be f1f_1 and class 60–80 be f2f_2.

    Expenditure Mid-point (mm) Frequency (ff) fmfm
    0 – 20 10 14 140
    20 – 40 30 f1f_1 30f130f_1
    40 – 60 50 27 1,350
    60 – 80 70 f2f_2 70f270f_2
    80 – 100 90 15 1,350
    Total — N=100N = 100 ∑fm=2,840+30f1+70f2\sum fm = 2,840 + 30f_1 + 70f_2

    Step 1: Total Frequency Equation

    14+f1+27+f2+15=10014 + f_1 + 27 + f_2 + 15 = 100
    f1+f2+56=100  ⟹  f1+f2=44— (1)f_1 + f_2 + 56 = 100 \implies f_1 + f_2 = 44 \quad \text{--- (1)}

    Step 2: Mean Equation

    Xˉ=∑fmN  ⟹  48=2840+30f1+70f2100\bar{X} = \frac{\sum fm}{N} \implies 48 = \frac{2840 + 30f_1 + 70f_2}{100}
    4,800=2,840+30f1+70f24,800 = 2,840 + 30f_1 + 70f_2
    30f1+70f2=1,96030f_1 + 70f_2 = 1,960

    Divide by 10:

    3f1+7f2=196— (2)3f_1 + 7f_2 = 196 \quad \text{--- (2)}


    Step 3: Solve Simultaneously

    Multiply Equation (1) by 3:

    3f1+3f2=132— (3)3f_1 + 3f_2 = 132 \quad \text{--- (3)}

    Subtract Equation (3) from Equation (2):

    (3f1+7f2)−(3f1+3f2)=196−132(3f_1 + 7f_2) - (3f_1 + 3f_2) = 196 - 132
    4f2=64  ⟹  f2=644=164f_2 = 64 \implies f_2 = \frac{64}{4} = \mathbf{16}

    Substitute f2=16f_2 = 16 into Equation (1):

    f1+16=44  ⟹  f1=44−16=28f_1 + 16 = 44 \implies f_1 = 44 - 16 = \mathbf{28}

    Final Answer: The missing frequencies are f1=28f_1 = 28 (for class 20–40) and f2=16f_2 = 16 (for class 60–80).

  6. Asked on 2024 Exam[3 marks]2024 paper

    Calculate coefficient of quartile deviation from the following distribution of expenditure of one thousand households of Pokhara city.

    Expenditure (Rs.'00) No. of households
    30-50 54
    50-70 100
    70-90 140
    90-110 300
    110-130 230
    130-150 125
    Above 150 51
    View model answerHide model answer

    Coefficient of Quartile Deviation of Household Expenditure:

    Cumulative Frequency Table:

    Expenditure (Rs '00) Households (ff) Cumulative Frequency (cfcf)
    30 – 50 54 54
    50 – 70 100 154
    70 – 90 140 294
    90 – 110 300 594
    110 – 130 230 824
    130 – 150 125 949
    Above 150 51 1000
    Total N=1000N = 1000 —

    Step 1: Lower Quartile (Q1Q_1)

    Position of Q1=N4=10004=250th  ⟹  Class: 70 – 90\text{Position of } Q_1 = \frac{N}{4} = \frac{1000}{4} = 250^{\text{th}} \implies \text{Class: 70 – 90}
    Q1=70+(250−154140)×20=70+(96140)×20=70+13.71=83.71Q_1 = 70 + \left(\frac{250 - 154}{140}\right) \times 20 = 70 + \left(\frac{96}{140}\right) \times 20 = 70 + 13.71 = \mathbf{83.71}

    Step 2: Upper Quartile (Q3Q_3)

    Position of Q3=3N4=30004=750th  ⟹  Class: 110 – 130\text{Position of } Q_3 = \frac{3N}{4} = \frac{3000}{4} = 750^{\text{th}} \implies \text{Class: 110 – 130}
    Q3=110+(750−594230)×20=110+(156230)×20=110+13.57=123.57Q_3 = 110 + \left(\frac{750 - 594}{230}\right) \times 20 = 110 + \left(\frac{156}{230}\right) \times 20 = 110 + 13.57 = \mathbf{123.57}

    Step 3: Coefficient of Quartile Deviation

    Coefficient of QD=Q3−Q1Q3+Q1=123.57−83.71123.57+83.71=39.86207.28≈0.1923\text{Coefficient of } QD = \frac{Q_3 - Q_1}{Q_3 + Q_1} = \frac{123.57 - 83.71}{123.57 + 83.71} = \frac{39.86}{207.28} \approx \mathbf{0.1923}

    Final Answer: The coefficient of quartile deviation is 0.1923 (or 19.23%).

  7. Asked on 2024 Exam[3 marks]2024 paper

    The mark distribution of 104 students are given below.

    Marks 0 - 10 10 - 20 20 - 30 30 - 40 40 - 50 50 - 60 60 - 70
    No. of Students 7 8 13 29 35 9 3

    Find the lowest marks of the top 10% of the students.

    View model answerHide model answer

    Lowest Marks of the Top 10% of Students (P90P_{90}):

    Concept:

    The cutoff score separating the top 10% of students is the 90th90^{\text{th}} Percentile (P90P_{90}).


    Cumulative Frequency Table:

    Marks Frequency (ff) Cumulative Frequency (cfcf)
    0 – 10 7 7
    10 – 20 8 15
    20 – 30 13 28
    30 – 40 29 57
    40 – 50 35 92
    50 – 60 9 101
    60 – 70 3 104
    Total N=104N = 104 —

    Step 1: Position of P90P_{90}Position=90×N100=90×104100=93.6th item\text{Position} = \frac{90 \times N}{100} = \frac{90 \times 104}{100} = 93.6^{\text{th}} \text{ item}$

    The cumulative frequency just exceeding 93.6 is 101, corresponding to class 50 – 60.


    Step 2: Percentile Interpolation Formula

    P90=L+(90N100−cff)×hP_{90} = L + \left(\frac{\frac{90N}{100} - cf}{f}\right) \times h

    Where L=50L = 50, cf=92cf = 92, f=9f = 9, h=10h = 10:

    P90=50+(93.6−929)×10=50+(1.69)×10=50+1.78=51.78P_{90} = 50 + \left(\frac{93.6 - 92}{9}\right) \times 10 = 50 + \left(\frac{1.6}{9}\right) \times 10 = 50 + 1.78 = \mathbf{51.78}

    Final Answer: The lowest marks of the top 10% of students is 51.78 marks.

  8. Asked on 2024 Exam[5 marks]2024 paper

    Calculate the percentile coefficient of kurtosis from the income distribution of sixty-two randomly selected employees of Nepal Bank Limited. Also interpret the result.

    Income (Rs '000) 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 Total
    No. of employees 7 10 20 18 7 62
    View model answerHide model answer

    Percentile Coefficient of Kurtosis for Nepal Bank Limited Employees:

    Cumulative Frequency Table:

    Income (Rs '000) Employees (ff) Cumulative Frequency (cfcf)
    20 – 30 7 7
    30 – 40 10 17
    40 – 50 20 37
    50 – 60 18 55
    60 – 70 7 62
    Total N=62N = 62 —

    Step 1: Calculate Q1Q_1 and Q3Q_3

    • Q1Q_1 position: N4=624=15.5th  ⟹  \frac{N}{4} = \frac{62}{4} = 15.5^{\text{th}} \implies Class 30 – 40
      Q1=30+(15.5−710)×10=30+8.5=38.5Q_1 = 30 + \left(\frac{15.5 - 7}{10}\right) \times 10 = 30 + 8.5 = \mathbf{38.5}
    • Q3Q_3 position: 3N4=1864=46.5th  ⟹  \frac{3N}{4} = \frac{186}{4} = 46.5^{\text{th}} \implies Class 50 – 60
      Q3=50+(46.5−3718)×10=50+(9.518)×10=50+5.28=55.28Q_3 = 50 + \left(\frac{46.5 - 37}{18}\right) \times 10 = 50 + \left(\frac{9.5}{18}\right) \times 10 = 50 + 5.28 = \mathbf{55.28}
    • Semi-Interquartile Range (QDQD):
      QD=Q3−Q12=55.28−38.52=16.782=8.39QD = \frac{Q_3 - Q_1}{2} = \frac{55.28 - 38.5}{2} = \frac{16.78}{2} = \mathbf{8.39}

    Step 2: Calculate P10P_{10} and P90P_{90}

    • P10P_{10} position: 10×62100=6.2th  ⟹  \frac{10 \times 62}{100} = 6.2^{\text{th}} \implies Class 20 – 30
      P10=20+(6.2−07)×10=20+8.86=28.86P_{10} = 20 + \left(\frac{6.2 - 0}{7}\right) \times 10 = 20 + 8.86 = \mathbf{28.86}
    • P90P_{90} position: 90×62100=55.8th  ⟹  \frac{90 \times 62}{100} = 55.8^{\text{th}} \implies Class 60 – 70
      P90=60+(55.8−557)×10=60+1.14=61.14P_{90} = 60 + \left(\frac{55.8 - 55}{7}\right) \times 10 = 60 + 1.14 = \mathbf{61.14}

    Step 3: Compute Kurtosis (KK)

    K=QDP90−P10=8.3961.14−28.86=8.3932.28≈0.2599K = \frac{QD}{P_{90} - P_{10}} = \frac{8.39}{61.14 - 28.86} = \frac{8.39}{32.28} \approx \mathbf{0.2599}

    Interpretation:

    • The standard normal (mesokurtic) value is K=0.263K = 0.263.
    • Since K=0.2599<0.263K = 0.2599 < 0.263, the distribution is slightly platykurtic, indicating a slightly flatter peak with thinner tails compared to a normal distribution.
  9. Asked on 2024 Exam[5 marks]2024 paper

    The following table shows average marks of students in two classes.

    Test whether there is any significant difference in average marks of students of two classes at 5% level of significance.

    View model answerHide model answer

    Hypothesis Testing: Difference in Average Marks Between Class A and Class B:

    Step 1: Summary of Sample Statistics

    • Class A: n1=150n_1 = 150, Xˉ1=45\bar{X}_1 = 45, s1=5s_1 = 5
    • Class B: n2=100n_2 = 100, Xˉ2=43\bar{X}_2 = 43, s2=4s_2 = 4
    • Level of significance (α\alpha) = 0.050.05

    Step 2: Formulate Hypotheses

    • Null Hypothesis (H0H_0): μ1=μ2\mu_1 = \mu_2 (There is no significant difference in average marks between the two classes).
    • Alternative Hypothesis (H1H_1): μ1≠μ2\mu_1 \ne \mu_2 (There is a significant difference in average marks — Two-tailed test).

    Step 3: Compute Test Statistic (ZZ)

    Z=Xˉ1−Xˉ2s12n1+s22n2Z = \frac{\bar{X}_1 - \bar{X}_2}{\sqrt{\frac{s_1^2}{n_1} + \frac{s_2^2}{n_2}}}

    Calculate Standard Error (SESE):

    s12n1=52150=25150=0.1667\frac{s_1^2}{n_1} = \frac{5^2}{150} = \frac{25}{150} = 0.1667
    s22n2=42100=16100=0.1600\frac{s_2^2}{n_2} = \frac{4^2}{100} = \frac{16}{100} = 0.1600
    SE=0.1667+0.1600=0.3267≈0.5715SE = \sqrt{0.1667 + 0.1600} = \sqrt{0.3267} \approx 0.5715

    Calculate ZcalZ_{\text{cal}}:

    Zcal=45−430.5715=20.5715=3.4995Z_{\text{cal}} = \frac{45 - 43}{0.5715} = \frac{2}{0.5715} = \mathbf{3.4995}


    Step 4: Decision and Conclusion

    • For a two-tailed test at α=0.05\alpha = 0.05, the tabulated critical value is Ztab=±1.96Z_{\text{tab}} = \pm 1.96.
    • Since ∣Zcal∣=3.50>1.96|Z_{\text{cal}}| = 3.50 > 1.96, we reject the null hypothesis H0H_0.

    Conclusion: There is a statistically significant difference in the average marks of students between Class A and Class B at the 5% level of significance (Class A students perform significantly better).

  10. Asked on 2024 Exam[5 marks]2024 paper

    The running capacity of two horses is given below, state which is more consistent and why?

    Horse A 250 255 280 290 295 300
    Horse B 280 282 290 295 298 295
    View model answerHide model answer

    Consistency Comparison of Two Horses Using Coefficient of Variation (CV):

    Data (n=6n = 6 observations each):

    • Horse A: [250,255,280,290,295,300][250, 255, 280, 290, 295, 300]
    • Horse B: [280,282,290,295,298,295][280, 282, 290, 295, 298, 295]

    Step 1: Horse A Calculations

    ∑XA=250+255+280+290+295+300=1,670\sum X_A = 250 + 255 + 280 + 290 + 295 + 300 = 1,670
    XˉA=16706=278.33\bar{X}_A = \frac{1670}{6} = \mathbf{278.33}

    Deviations squared ∑(XA−XˉA)2\sum (X_A - \bar{X}_A)^2:

    (250−278.33)2+⋯+(300−278.33)2=802.78+544.44+2.78+136.11+277.78+469.44=2,233.33(250 - 278.33)^2 + \dots + (300 - 278.33)^2 = 802.78 + 544.44 + 2.78 + 136.11 + 277.78 + 469.44 = 2,233.33

    σA=2233.336=372.22=19.29\sigma_A = \sqrt{\frac{2233.33}{6}} = \sqrt{372.22} = \mathbf{19.29}
    CVA=σAXˉA×100=19.29278.33×100=6.93%CV_A = \frac{\sigma_A}{\bar{X}_A} \times 100 = \frac{19.29}{278.33} \times 100 = \mathbf{6.93\%}

    Step 2: Horse B Calculations

    ∑XB=280+282+290+295+298+295=1,740\sum X_B = 280 + 282 + 290 + 295 + 298 + 295 = 1,740
    XˉB=17406=290.00\bar{X}_B = \frac{1740}{6} = \mathbf{290.00}

    Deviations squared ∑(XB−XˉB)2\sum (X_B - \bar{X}_B)^2:

    (−10)2+(−8)2+(0)2+(5)2+(8)2+(5)2=100+64+0+25+64+25=278.00(-10)^2 + (-8)^2 + (0)^2 + (5)^2 + (8)^2 + (5)^2 = 100 + 64 + 0 + 25 + 64 + 25 = 278.00

    σB=2786=46.33=6.81\sigma_B = \sqrt{\frac{278}{6}} = \sqrt{46.33} = \mathbf{6.81}
    CVB=σBXˉB×100=6.81290×100=2.35%CV_B = \frac{\sigma_B}{\bar{X}_B} \times 100 = \frac{6.81}{290} \times 100 = \mathbf{2.35\%}

    Conclusion:

    • A lower Coefficient of Variation signifies greater stability and consistency.
    • Since CVB(2.35%)<CVA(6.93%)CV_B (2.35\%) < CV_A (6.93\%), Horse B is significantly more consistent in its running performance than Horse A.
  11. Asked on 2023 Exam[1 marks]2023 paper

    If the values of upper quartile and lower quartile are 63 and 59 respectively, then calculate the coefficient of quartile deviation.

    View model answerHide model answer

    Coefficient of Quartile Deviation:

    Given:

    • Upper Quartile (Q3Q_3) = 6363
    • Lower Quartile (Q1Q_1) = 5959

    Formula:

    Coefficient of QD=Q3−Q1Q3+Q1\text{Coefficient of } QD = \frac{Q_3 - Q_1}{Q_3 + Q_1}

    Calculation:

    Coefficient of QD=63−5963+59=4122≈0.0328(or 3.28%)\text{Coefficient of } QD = \frac{63 - 59}{63 + 59} = \frac{4}{122} \approx \mathbf{0.0328} \quad (\text{or } 3.28\%)

    Final Answer: The coefficient of quartile deviation is 0.0328.

  12. Asked on 2023 Exam[1 marks]2023 paper

    In a moderately asymmetric distribution, the values of mean and mode are 20 and 23 respectively. Compute the value of median.

    View model answerHide model answer

    Calculation of Median from Empirical Relationship:

    Given:

    • Mean=20\text{Mean} = 20
    • Mode=23\text{Mode} = 23

    Empirical Formula for Moderately Asymmetric Distributions:

    Mode=3Median−2Mean\text{Mode} = 3\text{Median} - 2\text{Mean}

    Calculation:

    23=3Median−2(20)23 = 3\text{Median} - 2(20)
    23=3Median−4023 = 3\text{Median} - 40
    3Median=23+403\text{Median} = 23 + 40
    3Median=63  ⟹  Median=633=213\text{Median} = 63 \implies \text{Median} = \frac{63}{3} = \mathbf{21}

    Final Answer: The value of the median is 21.

  13. Asked on 2023 Exam[1 marks]2023 paper

    Calculate coefficient of variation, when values of mean and standard deviation are 32 and 17 respectively.

    View model answerHide model answer

    Calculation of Coefficient of Variation (CV):

    Given:

    • Mean (Xˉ)=32\text{Mean } (\bar{X}) = 32
    • Standard Deviation (σ)=17\text{Standard Deviation } (\sigma) = 17

    Formula:

    CV=σXˉ×100CV = \frac{\sigma}{\bar{X}} \times 100

    Calculation:

    CV=1732×100=53.125%CV = \frac{17}{32} \times 100 = \mathbf{53.125\%}

    Final Answer: The Coefficient of Variation is 53.125%.

  14. Asked on 2023 Exam[3 marks]2023 paper

    The following table shows the marks distribution of students in a subject:

    Marks 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60
    Frequency 10 25 45 20 18 12

    Find the lowest marks of the top 20% of the students.

    View model answerHide model answer

    Lowest Marks of the Top 20% of Students (P80P_{80}):

    Concept:

    The lowest marks obtained by the top 20% of students corresponds to the 80th80^{\text{th}} Percentile (P80P_{80}) of the distribution.


    Cumulative Frequency Table:

    Marks Frequency (ff) Cumulative Frequency (cfcf)
    0 – 10 10 10
    10 – 20 25 35
    20 – 30 45 80
    30 – 40 20 100
    40 – 50 18 118
    50 – 60 12 130
    Total N=130N = 130 —

    Step 1: Locate P80P_{80} Class Position

    Position of P80=80×N100=80×130100=104th item\text{Position of } P_{80} = \frac{80 \times N}{100} = \frac{80 \times 130}{100} = 104^{\text{th}} \text{ item}

    The cumulative frequency just greater than 104 is 118, which corresponds to the class 40 – 50.


    Step 2: Apply the Percentile Interpolation Formula

    P80=L+(80N100−cff)×hP_{80} = L + \left(\frac{\frac{80N}{100} - cf}{f}\right) \times h

    Where:

    • L=40L = 40 (Lower limit of P80P_{80} class)
    • cf=100cf = 100 (Cumulative frequency of the preceding class)
    • f=18f = 18 (Frequency of P80P_{80} class)
    • h=10h = 10 (Class width)
    P80=40+(104−10018)×10=40+(418)×10=40+2.22=42.22P_{80} = 40 + \left(\frac{104 - 100}{18}\right) \times 10 = 40 + \left(\frac{4}{18}\right) \times 10 = 40 + 2.22 = \mathbf{42.22}

    Final Answer: The lowest marks scored by the top 20% of the students is 42.22 marks.

  15. Asked on 2023 Exam[3 marks]2023 paper

    The following table represents the marks of 100 students.

    Marks 0-20 20-40 40-60 60-80 80-100
    Students 14 - 27 - 15

    Find the missing frequencies when modal marks is 48.

    View model answerHide model answer

    Calculation of Missing Frequencies Given Mode = 48:

    Given Data:

    • Total students (NN) = 100100
    • Mode=48\text{Mode} = 48

    Let the missing frequency for class 20−4020-40 be f1f_1 and for 60−8060-80 be f2f_2.

    Marks Frequency (ff)
    0 – 20 14
    20 – 40 f1f_1
    40 – 60 27
    60 – 80 f2f_2
    80 – 100 15
    Total N=100N = 100

    Step 1: Formulate Total Frequency Equation

    ∑f=14+f1+27+f2+15=100\sum f = 14 + f_1 + 27 + f_2 + 15 = 100
    f1+f2+56=100  ⟹  f1+f2=44— (1)f_1 + f_2 + 56 = 100 \implies f_1 + f_2 = 44 \quad \text{--- (1)}

    Step 2: Use Mode Formula

    Since Mode=48\text{Mode} = 48, it lies in the modal class 40 – 60.

    • Lower limit (LL) = 4040
    • Frequency of modal class (fmf_m) = 2727
    • Frequency of pre-modal class (f0f_0) = f1f_1
    • Frequency of post-modal class (f2′f_2') = f2f_2
    • Class height (hh) = 2020Mode=L+[fm−f02fm−f0−f2′]×h\text{Mode} = L + \left[\frac{f_m - f_0}{2f_m - f_0 - f_2'}\right] \times h$
      48=40+[27−f12(27)−f1−f2]×2048 = 40 + \left[\frac{27 - f_1}{2(27) - f_1 - f_2}\right] \times 20
      8=[27−f154−(f1+f2)]×208 = \left[\frac{27 - f_1}{54 - (f_1 + f_2)}\right] \times 20

    Substitute f1+f2=44f_1 + f_2 = 44 from Equation (1):

    8=[27−f154−44]×208 = \left[\frac{27 - f_1}{54 - 44}\right] \times 20
    8=[27−f110]×208 = \left[\frac{27 - f_1}{10}\right] \times 20
    8=2(27−f1)8 = 2(27 - f_1)
    4=27−f1  ⟹  f1=27−4=234 = 27 - f_1 \implies f_1 = 27 - 4 = \mathbf{23}

    Now find f2f_2 from Equation (1):

    f2=44−23=21f_2 = 44 - 23 = \mathbf{21}

    Final Answer: The missing frequencies are f1=23f_1 = 23 (for 20–40) and f2=21f_2 = 21 (for 60–80).

  16. Asked on 2023 Exam[3 marks]2023 paper

    From the following income distribution of 500 workers in a locality, find the median value of the income distribution.

    Income (000 Rs) No. of workers
    Below 20 50
    20-40 90
    40-60 150
    60 - 80 100
    80 - 100 60
    100 & above 50
    View model answerHide model answer

    Calculation of Median Income of 500 Workers:

    Cumulative Frequency Table:

    Income (Rs '000) Workers (ff) Cumulative Frequency (cfcf)
    0 – 20 50 50
    20 – 40 90 140
    40 – 60 150 290
    60 – 80 100 390
    80 – 100 60 450
    100 and above 50 500
    Total N=500N = 500 —

    Step 1: Identify Median Class

    Position of Median=N2=5002=250th item\text{Position of Median} = \frac{N}{2} = \frac{500}{2} = 250^{\text{th}} \text{ item}

    The cumulative frequency just greater than 250 is 290, so the Median Class is 40 – 60.


    Step 2: Apply Median Formula

    Md=L+(N2−cff)×hM_d = L + \left(\frac{\frac{N}{2} - cf}{f}\right) \times h

    Where:

    • L=40L = 40
    • cf=140cf = 140
    • f=150f = 150
    • h=20h = 20Md=40+(250−140150)×20=40+(110150)×20=40+14.67=54.67 (in ’000 Rs)M_d = 40 + \left(\frac{250 - 140}{150}\right) \times 20 = 40 + \left(\frac{110}{150}\right) \times 20 = 40 + 14.67 = \mathbf{54.67 \text{ (in '000 Rs)}}$

    Final Answer: The median income of the workers is Rs 54,667 (or 54.67 thousand Rs).

  17. Asked on 2023 Exam[3 marks]2023 paper

    From the following income distribution, calculate the appropriate measures of dispersion.

    Daily income (Rs) Number of workers
    Below 50 10
    51-100 18
    101-150 25
    151-200 20
    201-250 16
    250 and above 11
    View model answerHide model answer

    Appropriate Measure of Dispersion for Open-Ended Distribution:

    Justification:

    The given distribution has open-ended classes (“Below 50” and “250 and above”). For open-ended distributions, neither the Range nor the Standard Deviation can be calculated without arbitrary class boundaries. Therefore, the Quartile Deviation (Semi-Interquartile Range) is the uniquely appropriate measure of dispersion.


    Cumulative Frequency with True Class Boundaries:

    (Correction factor =(51−50)/2=0.5= (51 - 50)/2 = 0.5)

    Daily Income (Rs) ff Cumulative Frequency (cfcf)
    Below 50.5 10 10
    50.5 – 100.5 18 28
    100.5 – 150.5 25 53
    150.5 – 200.5 20 73
    200.5 – 250.5 16 89
    250.5 & above 11 100
    Total N=100N = 100 —

    Step 1: Lower Quartile (Q1Q_1)

    Position of Q1=N4=1004=25th item  ⟹  Class: 50.5 – 100.5\text{Position of } Q_1 = \frac{N}{4} = \frac{100}{4} = 25^{\text{th}} \text{ item} \implies \text{Class: 50.5 – 100.5}
    Q1=50.5+(25−1018)×50=50.5+(1518)×50=50.5+41.67=92.17Q_1 = 50.5 + \left(\frac{25 - 10}{18}\right) \times 50 = 50.5 + \left(\frac{15}{18}\right) \times 50 = 50.5 + 41.67 = \mathbf{92.17}

    Step 2: Upper Quartile (Q3Q_3)

    Position of Q3=3N4=3004=75th item  ⟹  Class: 200.5 – 250.5\text{Position of } Q_3 = \frac{3N}{4} = \frac{300}{4} = 75^{\text{th}} \text{ item} \implies \text{Class: 200.5 – 250.5}
    Q3=200.5+(75−7316)×50=200.5+(216)×50=200.5+6.25=206.75Q_3 = 200.5 + \left(\frac{75 - 73}{16}\right) \times 50 = 200.5 + \left(\frac{2}{16}\right) \times 50 = 200.5 + 6.25 = \mathbf{206.75}

    Step 3: Quartile Deviation (QDQD)

    QD=Q3−Q12=206.75−92.172=114.582=57.29QD = \frac{Q_3 - Q_1}{2} = \frac{206.75 - 92.17}{2} = \frac{114.58}{2} = \mathbf{57.29}
    Coefficient of QD=Q3−Q1Q3+Q1=114.58298.92=0.3833\text{Coefficient of } QD = \frac{Q_3 - Q_1}{Q_3 + Q_1} = \frac{114.58}{298.92} = \mathbf{0.3833}

    Final Answer:

    • Quartile Deviation: Rs 57.29
    • Coefficient of QD: 0.3833
  18. Asked on 2023 Exam[3 marks]2023 paper

    The following information was obtained from two investment companies A and B:

    Company A Company B
    Average return (000Rs) 28 37
    Variance 25 36
    No. of observations 100 100

    Calculate combined standard deviation.

    View model answerHide model answer

    Calculation of Combined Standard Deviation:

    Given Data:

    • Company A: n1=100n_1 = 100, Xˉ1=28\bar{X}_1 = 28, σ12=25\sigma_1^2 = 25
    • Company B: n2=100n_2 = 100, Xˉ2=37\bar{X}_2 = 37, σ22=36\sigma_2^2 = 36

    Step 1: Combined Mean (Xˉ12\bar{X}_{12})

    Xˉ12=n1Xˉ1+n2Xˉ2n1+n2=100(28)+100(37)100+100=2800+3700200=6500200=32.5\bar{X}_{12} = \frac{n_1 \bar{X}_1 + n_2 \bar{X}_2}{n_1 + n_2} = \frac{100(28) + 100(37)}{100 + 100} = \frac{2800 + 3700}{200} = \frac{6500}{200} = \mathbf{32.5}

    Step 2: Deviations of Individual Means from Combined Mean

    d1=Xˉ1−Xˉ12=28−32.5=−4.5  ⟹  d12=20.25d_1 = \bar{X}_1 - \bar{X}_{12} = 28 - 32.5 = -4.5 \implies d_1^2 = 20.25
    d2=Xˉ2−Xˉ12=37−32.5=+4.5  ⟹  d22=20.25d_2 = \bar{X}_2 - \bar{X}_{12} = 37 - 32.5 = +4.5 \implies d_2^2 = 20.25

    Step 3: Combined Variance (σ122\sigma_{12}^2)

    σ122=n1(σ12+d12)+n2(σ22+d22)n1+n2\sigma_{12}^2 = \frac{n_1(\sigma_1^2 + d_1^2) + n_2(\sigma_2^2 + d_2^2)}{n_1 + n_2}
    σ122=100(25+20.25)+100(36+20.25)200\sigma_{12}^2 = \frac{100(25 + 20.25) + 100(36 + 20.25)}{200}
    σ122=100(45.25)+100(56.25)200=4525+5625200=10150200=50.75\sigma_{12}^2 = \frac{100(45.25) + 100(56.25)}{200} = \frac{4525 + 5625}{200} = \frac{10150}{200} = \mathbf{50.75}

    Step 4: Combined Standard Deviation (σ12\sigma_{12})

    σ12=50.75≈7.1239 thousand Rs\sigma_{12} = \sqrt{50.75} \approx \mathbf{7.1239 \text{ thousand Rs}}

    Final Answer: The combined standard deviation is Rs 7,124 (or 7.12 thousand Rs).

  19. Asked on 2023 Exam[5 marks]2023 paper

    From the following distribution, find the coefficient of skewness. Also comment the result.

    Monthly income (Rs 000) Number of workers
    0-100 15
    100-200 50
    200-300 75
    300-400 40
    400-500 30
    500- 600 10
    View model answerHide model answer

    Calculation of Karl Pearson’s Coefficient of Skewness:

    Calculation Table:

    Monthly Income (Rs 000) Mid-point (mm) ff d=m−250100d = \frac{m - 250}{100} fdfd fd2fd^2
    0 – 100 50 15 -2 -30 60
    100 – 200 150 50 -1 -50 50
    200 – 300 250 75 0 0 0
    300 – 400 350 40 1 40 40
    400 – 500 450 30 2 60 120
    500 – 600 550 10 3 30 90
    Total — N=220N = 220 — ∑fd=50\sum fd = 50 ∑fd2=360\sum fd^2 = 360

    Step 1: Mean (Xˉ\bar{X})

    Xˉ=A+(∑fdN)×h=250+(50220)×100=250+22.73=272.73 thousand Rs\bar{X} = A + \left(\frac{\sum fd}{N}\right) \times h = 250 + \left(\frac{50}{220}\right) \times 100 = 250 + 22.73 = \mathbf{272.73 \text{ thousand Rs}}

    Step 2: Mode (MoM_o)

    Modal class is 200 – 300 (highest frequency f1=75f_1 = 75).

    • L=200L = 200, f0=50f_0 = 50, f2=40f_2 = 40, h=100h = 100Mo=L+[f1−f02f1−f0−f2]×h=200+[75−502(75)−50−40]×100=200+(2560)×100=241.67M_o = L + \left[\frac{f_1 - f_0}{2f_1 - f_0 - f_2}\right] \times h = 200 + \left[\frac{75 - 50}{2(75) - 50 - 40}\right] \times 100 = 200 + \left(\frac{25}{60}\right) \times 100 = \mathbf{241.67}$

    Step 3: Standard Deviation (σ\sigma)

    σ=h×∑fd2N−(∑fdN)2=100×360220−(50220)2=100×1.6364−0.05165=100×1.2589=125.89\sigma = h \times \sqrt{\frac{\sum fd^2}{N} - \left(\frac{\sum fd}{N}\right)^2} = 100 \times \sqrt{\frac{360}{220} - \left(\frac{50}{220}\right)^2} = 100 \times \sqrt{1.6364 - 0.05165} = 100 \times 1.2589 = \mathbf{125.89}

    Step 4: Karl Pearson’s Coefficient of Skewness (SkpSk_p)

    Skp=Xˉ−Moσ=272.73−241.67125.89=31.06125.89=+0.2467Sk_p = \frac{\bar{X} - M_o}{\sigma} = \frac{272.73 - 241.67}{125.89} = \frac{31.06}{125.89} = \mathbf{+0.2467}

    Interpretation: The distribution exhibits a positive skewness (Skp=+0.2467Sk_p = +0.2467), indicating that the distribution has a longer tail to the right and a concentration of lower to middle-income workers.

  20. Asked on 2023 Exam[5 marks]2023 paper

    From the following marks distribution of students of a campus, calculate the coefficient of kurtosis. Also, interpret the result.

    Marks Below 10 10 - 20 20 - 30 30 - 40 40 - 50 50 & above
    No. of students 50 100 150 90 60 50
    View model answerHide model answer

    Calculation of Percentile Coefficient of Kurtosis (KK):

    Concept:

    The Percentile Coefficient of Kurtosis is given by:

    K=QDP90−P10=Q3−Q12P90−P10K = \frac{QD}{P_{90} - P_{10}} = \frac{\frac{Q_3 - Q_1}{2}}{P_{90} - P_{10}}


    Cumulative Frequency Table:

    Marks Frequency (ff) Cumulative Frequency (cfcf)
    0 – 10 50 50
    10 – 20 100 150
    20 – 30 150 300
    30 – 40 90 390
    40 – 50 60 450
    50 – 60 50 500
    Total N=500N = 500 —

    Step 1: Calculate Q1Q_1 and Q3Q_3

    • Q1Q_1 position: N4=125th  ⟹  \frac{N}{4} = 125^{\text{th}} \implies Class 10 – 20
      Q1=10+(125−50100)×10=10+7.5=17.5Q_1 = 10 + \left(\frac{125 - 50}{100}\right) \times 10 = 10 + 7.5 = \mathbf{17.5}
    • Q3Q_3 position: 3N4=375th  ⟹  \frac{3N}{4} = 375^{\text{th}} \implies Class 30 – 40
      Q3=30+(375−30090)×10=30+8.33=38.33Q_3 = 30 + \left(\frac{375 - 300}{90}\right) \times 10 = 30 + 8.33 = \mathbf{38.33}
    • Semi-Interquartile Range (QDQD):
      QD=38.33−17.52=20.832=10.415QD = \frac{38.33 - 17.5}{2} = \frac{20.83}{2} = \mathbf{10.415}

    Step 2: Calculate P10P_{10} and P90P_{90}

    • P10P_{10} position: 10N100=50th  ⟹  \frac{10N}{100} = 50^{\text{th}} \implies Exactly the upper boundary of class 0–10:
      P10=10.0P_{10} = \mathbf{10.0}
    • P90P_{90} position: 90N100=450th  ⟹  \frac{90N}{100} = 450^{\text{th}} \implies Exactly the upper boundary of class 40–50:
      P90=50.0P_{90} = \mathbf{50.0}

    Step 3: Compute Kurtosis (KK)

    K=10.41550.0−10.0=10.41540=0.2604K = \frac{10.415}{50.0 - 10.0} = \frac{10.415}{40} = \mathbf{0.2604}

    Interpretation:

    • For a normal (mesokurtic) distribution, K=0.263K = 0.263.
    • Since K=0.2604<0.263K = 0.2604 < 0.263, the distribution is slightly platykurtic (flatter-topped than normal).
  21. Asked on 2023 Exam[20 marks]2023 paper

    Following table shows the income and expenditure of people of certain locality of small town city of Nepal.

    Income (000Rs) Expenditure (000 Rs)
    60 22
    55 20
    54 15
    52 17
    48 25
    52 21
    53 16
    47 17
    49 18
    50 19

    Find out: a. Coefficient of variations of income and expenditure and interpret the results. b. Correlation coefficient c. Two regression lines. d. Estimate the expenditure of a person whose income is Rs 70 thousand.

    View model answerHide model answer

    Income and Expenditure: Correlation and Regression Analysis

    Data Summary (n=10n = 10):

    • XX = Income (000 Rs): [60,55,54,52,48,52,53,47,49,50][60, 55, 54, 52, 48, 52, 53, 47, 49, 50]
    • YY = Expenditure (000 Rs): [22,20,15,17,25,21,16,17,18,19][22, 20, 15, 17, 25, 21, 16, 17, 18, 19]

    Summations:

    • ∑X=520  ⟹  Xˉ=52.0\sum X = 520 \implies \bar{X} = 52.0
    • ∑Y=190  ⟹  Yˉ=19.0\sum Y = 190 \implies \bar{Y} = 19.0
    • ∑X2=27,172  ⟹  ∑(X−Xˉ)2=132\sum X^2 = 27,172 \implies \sum (X - \bar{X})^2 = 132
    • ∑Y2=3,694  ⟹  ∑(Y−Yˉ)2=84\sum Y^2 = 3,694 \implies \sum (Y - \bar{Y})^2 = 84
    • ∑XY=9,885  ⟹  ∑(X−Xˉ)(Y−Yˉ)=5\sum XY = 9,885 \implies \sum (X - \bar{X})(Y - \bar{Y}) = 5

    a. Coefficients of Variation (CV):

    σX=13210=13.2=3.633  ⟹  CVX=3.63352×100=6.99%\sigma_X = \sqrt{\frac{132}{10}} = \sqrt{13.2} = 3.633 \implies CV_X = \frac{3.633}{52} \times 100 = \mathbf{6.99\%}
    σY=8410=8.4=2.898  ⟹  CVY=2.89819×100=15.25%\sigma_Y = \sqrt{\frac{84}{10}} = \sqrt{8.4} = 2.898 \implies CV_Y = \frac{2.898}{19} \times 100 = \mathbf{15.25\%}

    Interpretation: Since CVX(6.99%)<CVY(15.25%)CV_X (6.99\%) < CV_Y (15.25\%), income is significantly more consistent and uniform than expenditure.


    b. Correlation Coefficient (rr):

    r=∑(X−Xˉ)(Y−Yˉ)∑(X−Xˉ)2∑(Y−Yˉ)2=5132×84=511088=5105.30=+0.0475r = \frac{\sum (X - \bar{X})(Y - \bar{Y})}{\sqrt{\sum (X - \bar{X})^2 \sum (Y - \bar{Y})^2}} = \frac{5}{\sqrt{132 \times 84}} = \frac{5}{\sqrt{11088}} = \frac{5}{105.30} = \mathbf{+0.0475}

    There is a negligible, weak positive linear correlation between income and expenditure in this sample.


    c. Two Regression Lines:

    1. Regression coefficient of YY on XX (bYXb_{YX}):

      bYX=5132≈0.0379b_{YX} = \frac{5}{132} \approx 0.0379
      Line: Y−Yˉ=bYX(X−Xˉ)Y - \bar{Y} = b_{YX}(X - \bar{X})Y−19=0.0379(X−52)  ⟹  Y=17.03+0.0379XY - 19 = 0.0379(X - 52) \implies \mathbf{Y = 17.03 + 0.0379X}$

    2. Regression coefficient of XX on YY (bXYb_{XY}):

      bXY=584≈0.0595b_{XY} = \frac{5}{84} \approx 0.0595
      Line: X−Xˉ=bXY(Y−Yˉ)X - \bar{X} = b_{XY}(Y - \bar{Y})X−52=0.0595(Y−19)  ⟹  X=50.87+0.0595YX - 52 = 0.0595(Y - 19) \implies \mathbf{X = 50.87 + 0.0595Y}$


    d. Estimated Expenditure for Income = Rs 70,000 (X=70X = 70):

    Y^=17.03+0.0379(70)=17.03+2.65=19.68 thousand Rs (Rs 19,680)\hat{Y} = 17.03 + 0.0379(70) = 17.03 + 2.65 = \mathbf{19.68 \text{ thousand Rs (Rs 19,680)}}