Board paper

Management of Financial Institutions 2078 Board Question Paper

FIN 255 · Management of Financial Institutions

Programme
BBS
Academic year
Fourth Year
Exam year
2078 BS
Sitting
regular
Full marks
100
Duration
180 minutes

Tribhuvan University

Faculty of Management

Office of the Dean

2078 BS / Regular Examination

Course: FIN 255 · Management of Financial Institutions

Level: Bachelor of Business Studies (BBS) · Fourth Year

Full Marks: 100

Time: 3 hrs.

Candidates are required to give their answers in their own words as far as practicable. The figures in the margin indicate full marks.

Section A

Brief Answer Questions : Attempt ALL questions .

[10*2=20]
  1. Identify the participants of financial markets

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    Participants of Financial Markets

    The major participants in the financial markets include:

    1. Households / Individuals: Primary net suppliers of surplus funds in the economy who deposit savings and purchase securities (equities, bonds, mutual funds).
    2. Business Firms / Corporations: Primary net demanders of capital that raise long-term and short-term capital by issuing equity, debentures, commercial paper, and taking bank loans.
    3. Governments (Central, Provincial, Local): Borrowers that issue Treasury bills, development bonds, and citizen saving bonds to finance budgetary deficits, infrastructure projects, and public expenditures.
    4. Financial Intermediaries: Institutions such as commercial banks, development banks, finance companies, insurance companies, pension funds, and mutual funds that bridge surplus and deficit economic units.
    5. Foreign / International Participants: Foreign institutional investors, bilateral/multilateral agencies (e.g., ADB, World Bank), and multinational corporations engaging in cross-border capital flows and foreign exchange transactions.
  2. What are type I liabilities? Explain with an appropriate example.

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    Type I Liabilities

    In the classification of financial institution liabilities (developed by Frank J. Fabozzi):

    • Definition: A Type I Liability is an obligation where both the timing and the amount of the cash outlay are known with certainty to the financial institution.
    • Characteristics:
      • Cash outflow amount is predetermined.
      • Date of cash payment is fixed.
      • Minimal uncertainty regarding the liability cash flow stream.

    Example: A commercial bank issuing a 1-year Certificate of Deposit (CD) or fixed-term deposit of Rs. 100,000 at an annual interest rate of 8%.

    • The bank knows with complete certainty that it must pay exactly Rs. 108,000 (Rs. 100,000 principal + Rs. 8,000 interest) precisely 12 months from the date of issuance.
    • Another example is a fixed-coupon, non-callable bond issued by a corporation or bank with a scheduled maturity date.
  3. Define technology and operation risk.

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    Definition of Technology and Operational Risk

    1. Technology Risk:

      • The risk that major technological investments fail to produce anticipated cost efficiencies, become obsolete prematurely, or suffer architectural failure.
      • It also encompasses core banking software malfunctions, telecommunication breakdowns, data corruption, and inability to integrate electronic banking infrastructure (e.g., connectIPS, RTGS, mobile banking).
    2. Operational Risk:

      • Defined by the Basel Committee as the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people, and systems, or from external events.
      • Key drivers include human errors, internal fraud, unauthorized transactions, cyberattacks, system hacking, legal disputes, and disruptions caused by natural catastrophes.
  4. In what condition a brokerage firm will issue a margin call?

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    Conditions for Issuing a Margin Call

    A brokerage firm issues a margin call when the equity in an investor’s margin account falls below the regulatory or firm-specified maintenance margin requirement due to an adverse price movement in the purchased stock.

    Mathematically, a margin call is triggered when:

    Actual Margin=Market Value of SecuritiesLoan (Debit Balance)Market Value of Securities<Maintenance Margin Requirement\text{Actual Margin} = \frac{\text{Market Value of Securities} - \text{Loan (Debit Balance)}}{\text{Market Value of Securities}} < \text{Maintenance Margin Requirement}

    The critical price (PP^*) triggering a margin call is determined by:

    P=P0×(1Initial Margin)1Maintenance MarginP^* = \frac{P_0 \times (1 - \text{Initial Margin})}{1 - \text{Maintenance Margin}}

    When this condition occurs, the broker demands that the client deposit additional cash or acceptable collateral into the account immediately to restore equity back to the maintenance margin level. If the investor fails to respond, the broker reserves the contractual right to liquidate the securities.

  5. What would happen to stock price after right offering?

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    Impact on Stock Price After a Rights Offering

    When a company conducts a rights offering, the stock price declines to the theoretical ex-rights price (PexP_{ex}) once the stock begins trading ex-rights:

    Pex=N×Pcum+PsN+1P_{ex} = \frac{N \times P_{cum} + P_s}{N + 1}

    Where:

    • PcumP_{cum} = Cum-rights market price per share
    • PsP_s = Subscription (rights offer) price per share (set below PcumP_{cum})
    • NN = Number of existing rights required to purchase one new share

    Key Effects:

    1. Price Drop: The market price per share falls because new shares are sold at a discount relative to the prevailing market price, diluting the per-share value.
    2. Neutral Wealth Effect: The total wealth of an existing shareholder remains unchanged if they exercise their rights (or sell the rights in the market at their theoretical value R=PcumPsN+1R = \frac{P_{cum} - P_s}{N + 1}).
    3. Expanded Capital Base: The firm increases its outstanding share count and total equity capital.
  6. State any three properties of financial assets.

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    Three Properties of Financial Assets

    Three fundamental properties of financial assets are:

    1. Moneyness: The ease and convenience with which a financial asset can be converted into or used as legal tender (cash) without delay or price sacrifice. Demand deposits exhibit maximum moneyness.
    2. Liquidity: The ability to sell or liquidate the asset rapidly in the secondary market in large quantities with negligible transaction costs and minimal price discount.
    3. Divisibility and Denomination: The minimum monetary size in which a financial asset can be purchased or divided into smaller units. For instance, commercial paper often has large minimum denominations, whereas mutual fund units feature high divisibility.
  7. List out the features of exchange-traded funds.

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    Features of Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs)

    Key features of Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs) include:

    1. Continuous Intraday Secondary Trading: ETFs trade on stock exchanges like ordinary equity shares at real-time market prices throughout trading hours, allowing stop-loss, limit, and short-selling orders.
    2. Index Replication and Diversification: Most ETFs passively track a specific benchmark index (e.g., NEPSE Index, S&P 500, Nifty 50), providing instant broad market diversification with a single instrument.
    3. In-Kind Creation and Redemption Mechanism: Authorized Participants (APs) create and redeem large blocks of ETF shares (creation units) directly with the fund sponsor using baskets of underlying securities, preventing persistent premiums or discounts relative to NAV.
    4. Low Expense Ratio: Due to passive indexing, ETF management expense ratios are substantially lower than actively managed mutual funds.
    5. High Portfolio Transparency: Underlying portfolio holdings and weightings are disclosed publicly on a daily basis.
  8. What is the annualized yield on a Treasury bill with 90 days to maturity, a face value of Rs. 1,000,000 and selling for Rs. 980,000 on bank discount basis?

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    Annualized Bank Discount Yield Calculation

    Given:

    • Face Value (FF) = Rs. 1,000,000
    • Purchase Price (PP) = Rs. 980,000
    • Days to Maturity (tt) = 90 days
    • Year base for Bank Discount = 360 days

    Step 1: Compute the Dollar Discount (DD)

    D=FP=1,000,000980,000=Rs. 20,000D = F - P = 1,000,000 - 980,000 = \text{Rs. } 20,000

    Step 2: Calculate Bank Discount Yield (YbdY_{bd})

    Ybd=DF×360tY_{bd} = \frac{D}{F} \times \frac{360}{t}

    Ybd=20,0001,000,000×36090Y_{bd} = \frac{20,000}{1,000,000} \times \frac{360}{90}
    Ybd=0.02×4=0.08=8.00%Y_{bd} = 0.02 \times 4 = 0.08 = 8.00\%

    (Note: If evaluated on a Money Market / CD-equivalent yield basis, Ymmy=20,000980,000×36090=8.163%Y_{mmy} = \frac{20,000}{980,000} \times \frac{360}{90} = 8.163\%.)

    Answer: The annualized yield on a bank discount basis is 8.00%.

  9. Consider a universe of two stocks A and B with prices of Rs. 16 and Rs. 30 respectively. Calculate the price weighted index. If stock A goes 4 for 1 split, what is the new divisor?

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    Price-Weighted Index and New Divisor Calculation

    Given:

    • Stock A initial price (PAP_A) = Rs. 16
    • Stock B initial price (PBP_B) = Rs. 30
    • Number of stocks (NN) = 2, Initial Divisor (D0D_0) = 2

    Step 1: Calculate the Initial Price-Weighted Index (PWI0PWI_0)

    PWI0=PA+PBD0=16+302=462=23.00PWI_0 = \frac{P_A + P_B}{D_0} = \frac{16 + 30}{2} = \frac{46}{2} = 23.00

    Step 2: Determine New Prices After 4-for-1 Split of Stock A

    • New price of Stock A:
      PA=164=Rs. 4P'_A = \frac{16}{4} = \text{Rs. } 4
    • Price of Stock B remains unchanged:
      PB=Rs. 30P'_B = \text{Rs. } 30
    • Sum of new prices = 4+30=Rs. 344 + 30 = \text{Rs. } 34

    Step 3: Calculate the New Divisor (D1D_1) To ensure the index value remains unaffected immediately after the split:

    PD1=PWI0\frac{\sum P'}{D_1} = PWI_0

    34D1=23    D1=34231.4783\frac{34}{D_1} = 23 \implies D_1 = \frac{34}{23} \approx 1.4783

    Answer:

    • The initial price-weighted index is 23.00.
    • The new divisor after the 4-for-1 split is 1.4783.
  10. Suppose nominal rate is 10 percent and inflation rate is 4 percent, what is the real rate?

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    Real Interest Rate Calculation (Fisher Effect)

    Given:

    • Nominal interest rate (ii) = 10% = 0.10
    • Inflation rate (π\pi) = 4% = 0.04

    1. Exact Real Rate (Fisher’s Exact Formula):

    1+i=(1+r)(1+π)1 + i = (1 + r)(1 + \pi)

    1+r=1+i1+π=1+0.101+0.04=1.101.041.057691 + r = \frac{1 + i}{1 + \pi} = \frac{1 + 0.10}{1 + 0.04} = \frac{1.10}{1.04} \approx 1.05769
    r=1.057691=0.05769=5.769%5.77%r = 1.05769 - 1 = 0.05769 = 5.769\% \approx 5.77\%

    2. Approximate Real Rate:

    riπ=10%4%=6.00%r \approx i - \pi = 10\% - 4\% = 6.00\%

    Answer: The exact real interest rate is 5.77% (or approximately 6.00%).

Section B

Descriptive Answer Questions : Attempt any FIVE questions .

[5*10=50]
  1. What are different types of insurance? Explain

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    Types of Insurance and Their Detailed Explanation

    Insurance is a contractual risk-transfer mechanism wherein an individual or entity transfers the financial risk of potential loss to an insurer in exchange for a consideration called premium.

                             Types of Insurance
               ┌─────────────────────┴─────────────────────┐
         Life Insurance                            Non-Life (General) Insurance
      ┌────────┼────────┐                       ┌───────┼────────┬───────┐
    Term     Whole   Endowment                Fire   Marine   Motor   Liability
    Life     Life                                             & Eng.
    

    1. Life Insurance

    Protects against financial hardship caused by premature death or provides income security in retirement.

    1. Term Life Insurance:
      • Provides pure risk protection for a designated period (e.g., 10, 20, 30 years).
      • If the insured dies during the term, the face amount is paid to beneficiaries.
      • If the insured survives the term, no benefit is paid. Carries the lowest premium.
    2. Whole Life Insurance:
      • Provides permanent lifetime protection up to age 100.
      • Accumulates cash value on a tax-deferred basis, against which policyholders can borrow.
    3. Endowment Life Insurance:
      • Combines life coverage with forced savings.
      • The sum assured is payable either on the death of the insured during the term or upon survival to maturity.
      • Very popular in Nepal for funding children’s education and marriage.
    4. Unit-Linked Insurance Plans (ULIPs):
      • Integrates insurance protection with equity/debt market investment, where the policyholder bears the investment risk.

    2. Non-Life (General / Property & Casualty) Insurance

    Covers losses to tangible assets, property, and legal liabilities.

    1. Fire Insurance:
      • Covers property (factories, warehouses, dwellings, inventories) against direct damage caused by fire, lightning, explosion, and allied perils (floods, earthquakes, strikes).
    2. Marine Insurance:
      • Marine Cargo: Protects goods during transit by sea, air, rail, or road against damage, piracy, and sinking. Vital for landlocked Nepal’s foreign trade via Kolkata/Visakhapatnam ports.
      • Marine Hull: Protects the vessel, machinery, and equipment.
    3. Motor Insurance:
      • Mandatory Third-Party Liability Insurance covers bodily injury, disability, and death caused to third parties by motor vehicles.
      • Comprehensive Motor Insurance covers both third-party liability and accidental damage to the owner’s vehicle.
    4. Engineering and Construction Insurance:
      • Contractors All Risks (CAR) and Erection All Risks (EAR) protecting hydropower, road, and bridge infrastructure projects in Nepal.
    5. Aviation Insurance:
      • Covers aircraft hulls, passenger liabilities, and cargo for domestic and international airlines.
    6. Micro-Insurance:
      • Low-premium policies tailored for low-income rural households, covering livestock, crops, and micro-health.

    Regulatory Context in Nepal

    In Nepal, all insurance business is regulated by the Nepal Insurance Authority (Nepal Beema Pradhikaran) under the Insurance Act, 2079 (2022), enforcing solvency margins, compulsory micro-insurance quotas, and statutory capital requirements.

  2. What are the corporate senior securities? Explain the various types of corporate senior securities.

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    Corporate Senior Securities and Their Types

    1. Concept of Corporate Senior Securities

    Senior securities are financial claims issued by a corporation that have priority of claim over common equity on the firm’s earnings and assets. In the event of liquidation or bankruptcy, senior security holders must be satisfied in full before any residual cash is distributed to common shareholders.


    2. Hierarchy of Corporate Claims

       1. Senior Secured Debt (Mortgage Bonds, Equipment Trust Certificates)
       2. Senior Unsecured Debt (Debentures)
       3. Subordinated (Junior) Debt
       4. Preferred Stock
       5. Common Equity (Residual Claimant)
    

    3. Types of Corporate Senior Securities

    A. Senior Secured Debt

    These obligations are backed by specific pledged physical or financial collateral:

    1. Mortgage Bonds: Secured by a direct lien on specified real property, land, or manufacturing plants. If default occurs, bondholders can foreclose on the real estate.
    2. Equipment Trust Certificates (ETCs): Secured by tangible movable equipment (such as aircraft, locomotives, or shipping containers). Legal title remains with a trustee until the debt is fully amortized.
    3. Collateral Trust Bonds: Backed by a portfolio of financial assets, such as stocks or bonds of subsidiaries or other companies, held in trust.

    B. Senior Unsecured Debt (Debentures)

    • Backed solely by the general creditworthiness and earning power of the issuing corporation, without a specific lien on collateral.
    • Include protective covenants (e.g., negative pledge clause, dividend restrictions, minimum debt-service coverage ratio) to safeguard investors.

    C. Subordinated (Junior) Debt

    • Unsecured debt that ranks below senior debt in liquidation. In bankruptcy, subordinated debenture holders receive payment only after senior lenders and bank lines of credit have been paid in full.
    • Yields are correspondingly higher to compensate for elevated credit risk.

    D. Preferred Stock

    Preferred stock is a hybrid security positioned between debt and common equity:

    1. Cumulative Preferred Stock: Any skipped dividend payments accumulate as arrearages that must be fully cleared before common shareholders receive dividends.
    2. Convertible Preferred Stock: Grants the holder the right to convert preferred shares into a predetermined number of common shares.
    3. Callable Preferred Stock: Gives the issuer the contractual right to retire the shares at a designated call price after a call-protection window.
    4. Participating Preferred Stock: Allows holders to receive additional dividends beyond the fixed rate if common dividends exceed a designated threshold.

    4. Importance to Issuers and Investors

    • For Issuers: Senior securities enable raising long-term capital without diluting voting control or equity ownership, and interest payments on debt are tax-deductible.
    • For Investors: Offers predictable income streams, lower default risk, and superior recovery rates relative to common equities.
  3. Suppose ABC commercial bank has assets of Rs. 20 million with a risk weight of zero, assets of Rs. 250 million with a 0.2 risk weight, assets of Rs. 870 million with a 0.5 risk weight and assets of Rs. 950 million with a risk weight of 1. Further suppose that this bank reports tire-one capital of Rs. 250 million and tire-two capital of Rs. 80 million.

    a. What is the total risk weighted assets of this bank?

    b. What is the tire-one capital ratio?

    c. What is the tire-two capital ratio?

    d. What is the total capital ratio?

    e**.** Do you think that the bank has proper capital ratio as per demanded by NRB. Explain.

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    Capital Adequacy and Risk-Weighted Assets (RWA) Calculation

    Given Data for ABC Commercial Bank:

    • Assets with risk weight 0.0 = Rs. 20 million
    • Assets with risk weight 0.2 = Rs. 250 million
    • Assets with risk weight 0.5 = Rs. 870 million
    • Assets with risk weight 1.0 = Rs. 950 million
    • Tier 1 Capital (Core Capital) = Rs. 250 million
    • Tier 2 Capital (Supplementary Capital) = Rs. 80 million

    a. Total Risk-Weighted Assets (RWA)

    RWA=(Asset Amount×Risk Weight)\text{RWA} = \sum (\text{Asset Amount} \times \text{Risk Weight})
    RWA1=20×0.0=Rs. 0 millionRWA2=250×0.20=Rs. 50 millionRWA3=870×0.50=Rs. 435 millionRWA4=950×1.00=Rs. 950 millionTotal RWA=0+50+435+950=Rs. 1,435 million\begin{aligned} \text{RWA}_1 &= 20 \times 0.0 = \text{Rs. } 0 \text{ million} \\ \text{RWA}_2 &= 250 \times 0.20 = \text{Rs. } 50 \text{ million} \\ \text{RWA}_3 &= 870 \times 0.50 = \text{Rs. } 435 \text{ million} \\ \text{RWA}_4 &= 950 \times 1.00 = \text{Rs. } 950 \text{ million} \\[6pt] \mathbf{\text{Total RWA}} &= 0 + 50 + 435 + 950 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 1,435 \text{ million}} \end{aligned}

    b. Tier-One (Core) Capital Ratio

    Tier-1 Capital Ratio=Tier 1 CapitalTotal RWA×100\text{Tier-1 Capital Ratio} = \frac{\text{Tier 1 Capital}}{\text{Total RWA}} \times 100
    Tier-1 Capital Ratio=2501,435×100=17.42%\text{Tier-1 Capital Ratio} = \frac{250}{1,435} \times 100 = \mathbf{17.42\%}

    c. Tier-Two (Supplementary) Capital Ratio

    Tier-2 Capital Ratio=Tier 2 CapitalTotal RWA×100\text{Tier-2 Capital Ratio} = \frac{\text{Tier 2 Capital}}{\text{Total RWA}} \times 100
    Tier-2 Capital Ratio=801,435×100=5.57%\text{Tier-2 Capital Ratio} = \frac{80}{1,435} \times 100 = \mathbf{5.57\%}

    d. Total Capital Ratio (Capital Adequacy Ratio - CAR)

    Total Capital Fund=Tier 1 Capital+Tier 2 Capital=250+80=Rs. 330 million\text{Total Capital Fund} = \text{Tier 1 Capital} + \text{Tier 2 Capital} = 250 + 80 = \text{Rs. } 330 \text{ million}
    Total Capital Ratio=Total Capital FundTotal RWA×100\text{Total Capital Ratio} = \frac{\text{Total Capital Fund}}{\text{Total RWA}} \times 100
    Total Capital Ratio=3301,435×100=23.00%\text{Total Capital Ratio} = \frac{330}{1,435} \times 100 = \mathbf{23.00\%}

    e. Compliance Assessment Under NRB Directives

    Under the Capital Adequacy Framework mandated by Nepal Rastra Bank (Basel III framework for commercial banks):

    1. Minimum Tier 1 Capital Ratio: Mandated at 6.0% (or 8.5% including the 2.5% Capital Conservation Buffer).
      • ABC Bank’s Tier 1 ratio = 17.42%, well above the regulatory threshold.
    2. Minimum Total Capital Ratio (CAR): Mandated at 11.0% (8.5% minimum total capital + 2.5% Capital Conservation Buffer).
      • ABC Bank’s CAR = 23.00%, exceeding the 11.0% minimum by 12.00 percentage points.
    3. Tier 2 Capital Ceiling: Tier 2 capital cannot exceed 100% of Tier 1 capital.
      • Tier 2 (Rs. 80M) is well within Tier 1 (Rs. 250M).

    Conclusion: Yes, ABC Commercial Bank has a highly adequate capital ratio as demanded by Nepal Rastra Bank. It maintains substantial surplus capital buffers, indicating high solvency and strong shock-absorption capacity.

  4. Suppose banks and depository institutions receive additional excess reserve in the amount of Rs. 200,000 and the central bank has fixed 5 percent reserve requirement on transaction deposits. Further, suppose all depository institutions continually make loans with this excess reserve.Suppose banks and depository institutions receive additional excess reserve in the amount of Rs. 200,000 and the central bank has fixed 5 percent reserve requirement on transaction deposits. Further, suppose all depository institutions continually make loans with this excess reserve.

    a. Calculate the transaction deposit multiplier

    b. Calculate the maximum amount of new deposits (loans) that all depository institutions can create?

    c. If excess reserve declines from Rs. 200,000 to Rs. 150,000, what will happen to deposits?

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    Deposit Multiplier and Money Creation Calculation

    Given Data:

    • Additional Excess Reserve (ΔER\Delta ER) = Rs. 200,000
    • Required Reserve Ratio (rdr_d) = 5% = 0.05
    • Depository institutions continually make loans with excess reserves and there is no currency drain.

    a. Transaction Deposit Multiplier (mm)

    The transaction deposit multiplier reflects the multiple by which total deposits expand per rupee of new reserves:

    m=1rd=10.05=20m = \frac{1}{r_d} = \frac{1}{0.05} = \mathbf{20}

    b. Maximum Amount of New Deposits (Loans) Created

    1. Maximum Expansion in Total Deposits (ΔD\Delta D):

      ΔD=ΔER×m=200,000×20=Rs. 4,000,000\Delta D = \Delta ER \times m = 200,000 \times 20 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 4,000,000}

    2. Maximum Amount of New Loans Created:

      ΔL=ΔDΔER=4,000,000200,000=Rs. 3,800,000\Delta L = \Delta D - \Delta ER = 4,000,000 - 200,000 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 3,800,000}
      (Note: Depository institutions can create up to Rs. 4,000,000 in total new deposits, backed by Rs. 3,800,000 in loans and Rs. 200,000 in required reserves).


    c. Impact if Excess Reserves Decline to Rs. 150,000

    If excess reserves fall from Rs. 200,000 to Rs. 150,000:

    • New Deposit Creation Potential:

      ΔDnew=150,000×20=Rs. 3,000,000\Delta D_{new} = 150,000 \times 20 = \text{Rs. } 3,000,000

    • Contraction in Deposit Creation:

      Reduction in Deposits=4,000,0003,000,000=Rs. 1,000,000\text{Reduction in Deposits} = 4,000,000 - 3,000,000 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 1,000,000}

    Alternatively, the decline in reserves is ΔER=150,000200,000=Rs. 50,000\Delta ER' = 150,000 - 200,000 = -\text{Rs. } 50,000.

    Change in Deposits=50,000×20=Rs. 1,000,000\text{Change in Deposits} = -50,000 \times 20 = -\mathbf{\text{Rs. } 1,000,000}

    Conclusion: Total potential transaction deposits in the banking system will decrease by Rs. 1,000,000 (from Rs. 4,000,000 to Rs. 3,000,000).

  5. Suppose that coupon rate for TIPS is 3.5 percent and inflation rate is 3 percent. Suppose further that an investor purchase on January 1, Rs. 100,000 of par value (principal) of this issue. As per the term and condition of the issue, inflation is adjusted semi-annually.

    a. What will be the inflation adjusted principal at the end of the first six-month period?

    b. What will be the coupon amount for the first six-month period?

    c. What will be the inflation adjusted principal at the end of the second six-month period if inflation rate for the second six-month period is 1 percent?

    d**.** What will be the coupon amount for the second six-month period?

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    Treasury Inflation-Protected Securities (TIPS) Cash Flow Calculation

    Given Data:

    • Par Value (Principal on Jan 1) = Rs. 100,000
    • Annual Coupon Rate = 3.5% (Semi-annual coupon rate = 3.5%/2=1.75%3.5\% / 2 = 1.75\%)
    • Inflation rate for first 6-month period = 3%
    • Inflation rate for second 6-month period = 1%
    • Inflation adjustments occur semi-annually.

    a. Inflation-Adjusted Principal at End of First 6 Months

    Adjusted Principal1=Initial Principal×(1+Inflation Rate1)\text{Adjusted Principal}_1 = \text{Initial Principal} \times (1 + \text{Inflation Rate}_1)
    Adjusted Principal1=100,000×(1+0.03)=Rs. 103,000\text{Adjusted Principal}_1 = 100,000 \times (1 + 0.03) = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 103,000}

    (Note: If the 3% stated is annual inflation applied semi-annually at 1.5%, adjusted principal would be 100,000×1.015=Rs. 101,500100,000 \times 1.015 = \text{Rs. } 101,500. In TU conventions, the stated period rate of 3% is standardly applied as the 6-month inflation rate: Rs. 103,000).


    b. Coupon Amount for the First 6-Month Period

    The semi-annual coupon is computed on the inflation-adjusted principal:

    Coupon Payment1=Adjusted Principal1×(Annual Coupon Rate2)\text{Coupon Payment}_1 = \text{Adjusted Principal}_1 \times \left(\frac{\text{Annual Coupon Rate}}{2}\right)
    Coupon Payment1=103,000×(0.0352)=103,000×0.0175=Rs. 1,802.50\text{Coupon Payment}_1 = 103,000 \times \left(\frac{0.035}{2}\right) = 103,000 \times 0.0175 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 1,802.50}

    (If 1.5% semi-annual inflation: 101,500×0.0175=Rs. 1,776.25101,500 \times 0.0175 = \text{Rs. } 1,776.25.)


    c. Inflation-Adjusted Principal at End of Second 6 Months

    Using the second-period inflation rate of 1%:

    Adjusted Principal2=Adjusted Principal1×(1+Inflation Rate2)\text{Adjusted Principal}_2 = \text{Adjusted Principal}_1 \times (1 + \text{Inflation Rate}_2)
    Adjusted Principal2=103,000×(1+0.01)=103,000×1.01=Rs. 104,030\text{Adjusted Principal}_2 = 103,000 \times (1 + 0.01) = 103,000 \times 1.01 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 104,030}

    (If using 1.5% and 1%: 101,500×1.01=Rs. 102,515101,500 \times 1.01 = \text{Rs. } 102,515.)


    d. Coupon Amount for the Second 6-Month Period

    Coupon Payment2=Adjusted Principal2×(Annual Coupon Rate2)\text{Coupon Payment}_2 = \text{Adjusted Principal}_2 \times \left(\frac{\text{Annual Coupon Rate}}{2}\right)
    Coupon Payment2=104,030×0.0175=Rs. 1,820.525Rs. 1,820.53\text{Coupon Payment}_2 = 104,030 \times 0.0175 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 1,820.525} \approx \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 1,820.53}

    (If using 1.5% and 1%: 102,515×0.0175=Rs. 1,794.01102,515 \times 0.0175 = \text{Rs. } 1,794.01.)


    Summary Table

    Period Inflation Rate Adjusted Principal Coupon Payment (1.75%)
    Month 6 3.0% Rs. 103,000 Rs. 1,802.50
    Month 12 1.0% Rs. 104,030 Rs. 1,820.53
  6. Suppose that a mutual fund has the following assets and liabilities.

    Item Amount
    Stock (at current market value) Rs. 20,000,000
    Bonds (at current market value) Rs. 10,000,000
    Cash Rs. 500,000
    Total value of shares Rs. 30,500,000
    Less: Liabilities Rs. 300,000
    Net worth Rs. 30,200,000

    Number of outstanding shares : 10 million

    a. What is the net asset value (NAV)?

    b. If the value of stock held in portfolio rises by 10 percent and value of bond held in the portfolio falls by 2 percent, and cash and liabilities remain the same, what will be net asset value?

    c. What will be the yield on your investment in the mutual fund if you purchase the mutual fund at NAV calculated in part ‘a’ and sell the unit at NAV calculated in part ‘b’?

    [10]
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    Mutual Fund NAV and Investment Yield Calculation

    Given Data:

    • Stock (current market value) = Rs. 20,000,000
    • Bonds (current market value) = Rs. 10,000,000
    • Cash = Rs. 500,000
    • Total Liabilities = Rs. 300,000
    • Number of outstanding shares = 10 million (10,000,000 shares)

    a. Initial Net Asset Value (NAV)

    1. Calculate Total Assets:

      Total Assets=20,000,000+10,000,000+500,000=Rs. 30,500,000\text{Total Assets} = 20,000,000 + 10,000,000 + 500,000 = \text{Rs. } 30,500,000

    2. Calculate Net Worth (Net Assets):

      Net Assets=Total AssetsLiabilities=30,500,000300,000=Rs. 30,200,000\text{Net Assets} = \text{Total Assets} - \text{Liabilities} = 30,500,000 - 300,000 = \text{Rs. } 30,200,000

    3. Calculate NAV:

      NAVa=Net AssetsNumber of Shares=30,200,00010,000,000=Rs. 3.02 per share\text{NAV}_a = \frac{\text{Net Assets}}{\text{Number of Shares}} = \frac{30,200,000}{10,000,000} = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 3.02 \text{ per share}}


    b. Revised Net Asset Value After Portfolio Changes

    • Revised Stock Value: Rises by 10%
      Stock=20,000,000×(1+0.10)=Rs. 22,000,000\text{Stock} = 20,000,000 \times (1 + 0.10) = \text{Rs. } 22,000,000
    • Revised Bond Value: Falls by 2%
      Bonds=10,000,000×(10.02)=Rs. 9,800,000\text{Bonds} = 10,000,000 \times (1 - 0.02) = \text{Rs. } 9,800,000
    • Cash: Unchanged = Rs. 500,000
    • Liabilities: Unchanged = Rs. 300,000
    1. New Total Assets:

      Total Assetsnew=22,000,000+9,800,000+500,000=Rs. 32,300,000\text{Total Assets}_{new} = 22,000,000 + 9,800,000 + 500,000 = \text{Rs. } 32,300,000

    2. New Net Assets:

      Net Assetsnew=32,300,000300,000=Rs. 32,000,000\text{Net Assets}_{new} = 32,300,000 - 300,000 = \text{Rs. } 32,000,000

    3. New NAV:

      NAVb=32,000,00010,000,000=Rs. 3.20 per share\text{NAV}_b = \frac{32,000,000}{10,000,000} = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 3.20 \text{ per share}}


    c. Yield on Investment

    If units are purchased at NAVa\text{NAV}_a and sold at NAVb\text{NAV}_b:

    Yield=NAVbNAVaNAVa×100\text{Yield} = \frac{\text{NAV}_b - \text{NAV}_a}{\text{NAV}_a} \times 100
    Yield=3.203.023.02×100=0.183.02×100=5.96%\text{Yield} = \frac{3.20 - 3.02}{3.02} \times 100 = \frac{0.18}{3.02} \times 100 = \mathbf{5.96\%}

    Answer:

    • Initial NAV = Rs. 3.02
    • Revised NAV = Rs. 3.20
    • Investor Yield = 5.96%

Section C

Analytical Answer Questions : Attempt any TWO questions .

[2*15=30]
  1. What are the categories of financial innovation? Explain different motivations for financial innovation?

    [15]
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    Financial Innovation: Categories and Motivations

    Financial innovation refers to the development and popularization of new financial instruments, technologies, institutions, and market mechanisms that improve the efficiency of capital allocation and risk sharing.


    1. Categories of Financial Innovation

    According to economic classifications (Llewellyn, Silber, and Merton):

    1. Product / Instrument Innovation:
      • Creation of novel securities tailored to specific investor appetites and issuer requirements.
      • Examples: Collateralized Debt Obligations (CDOs), Credit Default Swaps (CDS), Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs), floating rate notes (FRNs), hybrid equity-debt instruments.
    2. Process / Operational Innovation:
      • Introduction of new delivery channels, back-office automation, and clearing systems that lower transaction costs and boost transaction velocity.
      • Examples: Core Banking Solutions (CBS), Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS), mobile payment wallets (eSewa, Khalti), QR payment interoperability, and automated clearing houses (NCHL).
    3. Market Innovation:
      • Establishing new organized trading platforms, auction venues, and secondary market structures.
      • Examples: Electronic trading systems (NEPSE NOTS), dark pools, derivatives exchanges, and cross-border currency trading platforms.
    4. Institutional / Organizational Innovation:
      • Emergence of specialized financial entities filling market niches.
      • Examples: Microfinance institutions (MFIs), peer-to-peer (P2P) lending platforms, venture capital funds, private equity firms, and credit rating agencies (ICRA Nepal, Care Ratings Nepal).

    2. Motivations for Financial Innovation

    A. Increased Macroeconomic Volatility

    • Fluctuations in interest rates, inflation, and foreign exchange rates generate immense financial exposure for firms.
    • Innovations such as interest rate swaps, currency futures, and adjustable-rate mortgages (ARMs) were developed directly to hedge against volatile macroeconomic environments.

    B. Regulatory Arbitrage and Circumvention

    • Regulatory constraints (reserve requirements, capital adequacy ratios, interest rate ceilings such as Regulation Q) often incentivize institutions to engineer loopholes.
    • Examples: Eurodollar markets emerged to bypass US reserve requirements; off-balance sheet securitization allowed banks to manage regulatory capital ratios under Basel accords.

    C. Advances in Computer and Information Technology

    • Exponential growth in computing power and algorithmic models reduced the cost of processing vast amounts of data and executing transactions.
    • Facilitated high-frequency trading (HFT), automated credit underwriting, and real-time mobile banking.

    D. Changing Customer Needs and Demographic Shifts

    • Aging populations demanded retirement products (annuities, reverse mortgages), while younger generations demand instantaneous digital payments and fractional share investments.

    E. Globalization and Market Integration

    • International trade and cross-border investment require instruments that overcome currency restrictions, withholding taxes, and legal differences (e.g., American Depository Receipts - ADRs, Global Depository Receipts - GDRs).

    F. Agency Costs and Asymmetric Information

    • Financial contracts (convertible bonds, venture capital earn-outs) are structured innovatively to align manager incentives with shareholder interests and reduce moral hazard.

    Conclusion

    Financial innovation expands market completeness and liquidity, though excessive complexity without proper macroprudential regulation can create systemic vulnerability, as evidenced by the 2007-2008 global financial crisis.

  2. You plan to purchase a Rs. 175,000 house load using a 15 years mortgage obtained from your local bank mortgage rate offered to you is 7.75%. you will make a down payment of 20 percent of purchased price.

    a) Calculate your monthly payment on this mortgage.

    b) Calculate the amount of interest and separately principal paid in the 180th180^{th} payment.

    c) Calculate the amount of remaining mortgage balance at the end of 60th60^{th}months.

    d) Construct an amortization schedule for the first five months.

    e) Calculate the amount of interest paid over the life of this mortgage.

    [15]
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    Mortgage Loan Amortization Analysis

    Given Data:

    • Purchase Price of House = Rs. 175,000
    • Down Payment = 20% of purchase price = 0.20×175,000=Rs. 35,0000.20 \times 175,000 = \text{Rs. } 35,000
    • Loan Amount (PVPV) = 175,00035,000=Rs. 140,000175,000 - 35,000 = \text{Rs. } 140,000
    • Loan Term = 15 years     n=15×12=180\implies n = 15 \times 12 = 180 months
    • Annual Interest Rate = 7.75%
    • Monthly Interest Rate (ii) = 0.077512=0.006458333\frac{0.0775}{12} = 0.006458333

    a. Monthly Payment (PMTPMT)

    PMT=PV×i1(1+i)nPMT = \frac{PV \times i}{1 - (1 + i)^{-n}}
    (1+i)n=(1.006458333)180=0.3138851(1+i)n=10.313885=0.686115PMT=140,000×0.0064583330.686115=904.16670.686115=Rs. 1,317.81\begin{aligned} (1 + i)^{-n} &= (1.006458333)^{-180} = 0.313885 \\[4pt] 1 - (1 + i)^{-n} &= 1 - 0.313885 = 0.686115 \\[4pt] PMT &= \frac{140,000 \times 0.006458333}{0.686115} = \frac{904.1667}{0.686115} = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 1,317.81} \end{aligned}

    b. Interest and Principal Paid in the 180th180^{\text{th}} Payment

    In the final (180th180^{\text{th}}) month, the beginning balance equals the present value of 1 remaining payment (PMTPMT):

    B179=PMT1+i=1,317.811.006458333=Rs. 1,309.35B_{179} = \frac{PMT}{1 + i} = \frac{1,317.81}{1.006458333} = \text{Rs. } 1,309.35
    • Interest in Month 180:

      I180=B179×i=1,309.35×0.006458333=Rs. 8.46I_{180} = B_{179} \times i = 1,309.35 \times 0.006458333 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 8.46}

    • Principal in Month 180:

      PR180=PMTI180=1,317.818.46=Rs. 1,309.35PR_{180} = PMT - I_{180} = 1,317.81 - 8.46 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 1,309.35}
      (The principal fully liquidates the remaining balance B179B_{179}, bringing the final balance to Rs. 0.00).


    c. Remaining Mortgage Balance at the End of 60th60^{\text{th}} Month (B60B_{60})

    At month 60, there are 18060=120180 - 60 = 120 payments remaining.

    B60=PMT×[1(1+i)120i]B_{60} = PMT \times \left[ \frac{1 - (1 + i)^{-120}}{i} \right]
    (1+i)120=(1.006458333)120=0.4619331(1+i)120=0.538067PVIFA0.006458333,120=0.5380670.006458333=83.3136B60=1,317.81×83.3136=Rs. 109,791.22\begin{aligned} (1 + i)^{-120} &= (1.006458333)^{-120} = 0.461933 \\[4pt] 1 - (1 + i)^{-120} &= 0.538067 \\[4pt] \text{PVIFA}_{0.006458333, 120} &= \frac{0.538067}{0.006458333} = 83.3136 \\[4pt] B_{60} &= 1,317.81 \times 83.3136 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 109,791.22} \end{aligned}

    d. Amortization Schedule for the First Five Months

    Month Beginning Balance Total Payment (PMTPMT) Interest Payment (B×iB \times i) Principal Repayment Ending Balance
    1 Rs. 140,000.00 Rs. 1,317.81 Rs. 904.17 Rs. 413.64 Rs. 139,586.36
    2 Rs. 139,586.36 Rs. 1,317.81 Rs. 901.49 Rs. 416.32 Rs. 139,170.04
    3 Rs. 139,170.04 Rs. 1,317.81 Rs. 898.81 Rs. 419.00 Rs. 138,751.04
    4 Rs. 138,751.04 Rs. 1,317.81 Rs. 896.10 Rs. 421.71 Rs. 138,329.33
    5 Rs. 138,329.33 Rs. 1,317.81 Rs. 893.37 Rs. 424.44 Rs. 137,904.89

    e. Total Interest Paid Over the Life of the Mortgage

    Total Payments=n×PMT=180×1,317.81=Rs. 237,205.80Total Principal Repaid=Rs. 140,000.00Total Interest Paid=237,205.80140,000.00=Rs. 97,205.80\begin{aligned} \text{Total Payments} &= n \times PMT = 180 \times 1,317.81 = \text{Rs. } 237,205.80 \\[4pt] \text{Total Principal Repaid} &= \text{Rs. } 140,000.00 \\[4pt] \mathbf{\text{Total Interest Paid}} &= 237,205.80 - 140,000.00 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 97,205.80} \end{aligned}
  3. (a) The price of a 5 percent bond with principal of Rs. 1000 and a maturity of 15 years is Rs. 677.57. If that yield is increased by 50 basis points from 9 percent to 9.5 percent, the price would be Rs. 647.73. If the yield is decreased by 50 basis points from 9 percent to 8.5 percent, the price would be Rs. 709.35. Calculate percentage change in price.

    (b) What is the cash flow of a 6 percent coupon bond that pays interest annually, matures in seven years, and has a principal of Rs. 1000. Assuming a discount rate of 8 percent, what is the price of this bond?

    (c) Suppose you own a bond that pays Rs. 75 yearly in coupon interest and that is likely to be called in two years (because the firm has already announced that it will redeem that issue early). The call prices will be Rs. 1,050. What is the price of your bond now in the market if the appropriate discount rate for this asset is 9 percent?

    [15]
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    Comprehensive Bond Valuation Analysis


    (a) Percentage Change in Bond Price and Convexity

    Given:

    • Base Price (P0P_0) = Rs. 677.57 at Yield Y0=9.0%Y_0 = 9.0\%
    • Case 1: Yield increases by 50 bps (+0.50%) to 9.5%: Price P1=Rs. 647.73P_1 = \text{Rs. } 647.73
    • Case 2: Yield decreases by 50 bps (-0.50%) to 8.5%: Price P2=Rs. 709.35P_2 = \text{Rs. } 709.35

    1. Percentage Price Change When Yield Increases by 50 bps:

    %ΔPincrease=P1P0P0×100=647.73677.57677.57×100=29.84677.57×100=4.40%\% \Delta P_{\text{increase}} = \frac{P_1 - P_0}{P_0} \times 100 = \frac{647.73 - 677.57}{677.57} \times 100 = \frac{-29.84}{677.57} \times 100 = \mathbf{-4.40\%}

    2. Percentage Price Change When Yield Decreases by 50 bps:

    %ΔPdecrease=P2P0P0×100=709.35677.57677.57×100=+31.78677.57×100=+4.69%\% \Delta P_{\text{decrease}} = \frac{P_2 - P_0}{P_0} \times 100 = \frac{709.35 - 677.57}{677.57} \times 100 = \frac{+31.78}{677.57} \times 100 = \mathbf{+4.69\%}

    Convexity Observation: The percentage price appreciation for a 50 bps decline in yield (+4.69%) is greater in magnitude than the percentage price depreciation for an identical 50 bps increase in yield (-4.40%). This asymmetric property illustrates positive convexity of option-free bonds.


    (b) Cash Flows and Price of a 6% Coupon Bond

    Given:

    • Par Value (MM) = Rs. 1,000
    • Coupon Rate = 6% per annum     I=1,000×0.06=Rs. 60\implies I = 1,000 \times 0.06 = \text{Rs. } 60
    • Maturity (nn) = 7 years
    • Required Discount Rate (kdk_d) = 8%

    1. Cash Flow Schedule:

    • Years 1 to 6: Annual coupon payment of Rs. 60 each year.
    • Year 7: Annual coupon plus principal repayment = 60+1,000=Rs. 1,06060 + 1,000 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 1,060}.

    2. Bond Price Calculation:

    P0=I×[1(1+kd)nkd]+M(1+kd)nP_0 = I \times \left[ \frac{1 - (1 + k_d)^{-n}}{k_d} \right] + \frac{M}{(1 + k_d)^n}

    PVIFA8%,7=1(1.08)70.08=10.5834900.08=5.20637\text{PVIFA}_{8\%, 7} = \frac{1 - (1.08)^{-7}}{0.08} = \frac{1 - 0.583490}{0.08} = 5.20637
    PVIF8%,7=(1.08)7=0.583490\text{PVIF}_{8\%, 7} = (1.08)^{-7} = 0.583490
    P0=(60×5.20637)+(1,000×0.583490)=312.38+583.49=Rs. 895.87P_0 = (60 \times 5.20637) + (1,000 \times 0.583490) = 312.38 + 583.49 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 895.87}

    (Because the coupon rate 6% is below the market yield 8%, the bond sells at a discount).


    (c) Valuation of a Callable Bond

    Given:

    • Annual Coupon Payment (II) = Rs. 75
    • Call Horizon (nn) = 2 years
    • Call Price (CPCP) = Rs. 1,050 at t=2t = 2
    • Required Discount Rate (kdk_d) = 9%

    Bond Price Formula:

    P0=I(1+kd)1+I+CP(1+kd)2P_0 = \frac{I}{(1 + k_d)^1} + \frac{I + CP}{(1 + k_d)^2}

    P0=751.09+75+1,050(1.09)2=751.09+1,1251.1881=68.81+946.89=Rs. 1,015.70\begin{aligned} P_0 &= \frac{75}{1.09} + \frac{75 + 1,050}{(1.09)^2} \\[6pt] &= \frac{75}{1.09} + \frac{1,125}{1.1881} \\[6pt] &= 68.81 + 946.89 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 1,015.70} \end{aligned}

    Answer: The current market price of the callable bond is Rs. 1,015.70.