Board paper

Fundamentals of Corporate Finance 2080 Board Question Paper

FIN 250 · Fundamentals of Corporate Finance

Programme
BBS
Academic year
Fourth Year
Exam year
2080 BS
Sitting
regular
Full marks
100
Duration
180 minutes

Tribhuvan University

Faculty of Management

Office of the Dean

2080 BS / Regular Examination

Course: FIN 250 · Fundamentals of Corporate Finance

Level: Bachelor of Business Studies (BBS) · Fourth Year

Full Marks: 100

Time: 3 hrs.

Candidates are required to give their answers in their own words as far as practicable. The figures in the margin indicate full marks.

Section A

Brief Answer Question : Attempt All questions .

[10*2=20]
  1. Write the meaning of business ethics.

    [2]
    View model solution

    Meaning of Business Ethics

    Business ethics refers to the moral principles, values, and standards of conduct that guide organizational decision-making, corporate behavior, and relationships with stakeholders (shareholders, customers, employees, creditors, and society).

  2. How does operating lease differ from financial lease?

    [2]
    View model solution

    Operating Lease vs. Financial Lease

    1. Operating Lease: Short-term, cancelable contractual lease; maintenance and insurance are typically provided by the lessor; assets are not fully amortized over the primary lease term.
    2. Financial (Capital) Lease: Long-term, non-cancelable lease spanning most of the asset’s economic useful life; maintenance is borne by the lessee; payments fully amortize the asset’s purchase price.
  3. What do you mean by optimal capital structure?

    [2]
    View model solution

    Meaning of Optimal Capital Structure

    The optimal capital structure is the precise mix of debt, preferred stock, and common equity that minimizes the firm’s Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) and simultaneously maximizes the market value per share of its common stock.

  4. What is operating plan?

    [2]
    View model solution

    What is an Operating Plan?

    An operating plan provides detailed tactical operational guidance for the enterprise’s functional divisions (marketing, production, logistics, personnel), outlining production targets, unit sales forecasts, and operational cost budgets for the upcoming operating period.

  5. Why preferred stock is called hybrid security?

    [2]
    View model solution

    Why Preferred Stock is Called a Hybrid Security

    Preferred stock is a hybrid security because it blends debt-like features (fixed dividend payments, priority claim over common equity on liquidation, non-voting status) with equity-like features (no fixed maturity date, omission of dividends does not trigger bankruptcy, dividends are paid from after-tax earnings).

  6. List out any four reasons for going global.

    [2]
    View model solution

    Four Key Reasons for Going Global

    1. Accessing New Consumer Markets: Overcoming domestic market saturation.
    2. Securing Raw Materials & Natural Resources: Guaranteeing vital inputs at lower cost.
    3. Exploiting Low-Cost Production Factors: Benefiting from lower manufacturing wages and operational costs.
    4. Geographic Risk Diversification: Mitigating vulnerability to single-country economic downturns.
  7. Define the term warrant.

    [2]
    View model solution

    Definition of Warrant

    A warrant is a long-term derivative call option issued directly by a corporation granting the holder the legal right to purchase a specified number of common shares at a stated exercise price within a designated expiration period.

  8. What do you mean by purchasing power parity?

    [2]
    View model solution

    Concept of Purchasing Power Parity (PPP)

    Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) states that exchange rates between currencies are in equilibrium when their domestic purchasing power at that rate of exchange is equivalent, asserting that identical bundles of goods should sell for the same price worldwide when converted to a common currency (Law of One Price).

  9. Star Traders buys under terms of 3/8 net 50. Star Trader does not take discount and pays on 60th day. What is the annual percentage cost stretching accounts payable? Assume 360 days in a year.

    [2]
    View model solution

    Annual Percentage Cost of Stretching Accounts Payable (3/8 net 50, paid on 60th day):

    APR=Discount %100Discount %×360Actual Payment DaysDiscount DaysAPR = \frac{\text{Discount } \%}{100 - \text{Discount } \%} \times \frac{360}{\text{Actual Payment Days} - \text{Discount Days}}
    APR=397×360608=0.030928×36052=0.030928×6.923077=0.214115=21.41%APR = \frac{3}{97} \times \frac{360}{60 - 8} = 0.030928 \times \frac{360}{52} = 0.030928 \times 6.923077 = 0.214115 = \mathbf{21.41\%}

    Conclusion: The annual percentage cost is 21.41%.

  10. Sahara Company has 320,000 shares outstanding and the firm’s charter provides for a cumulative voting procedure. The company has seven directors. What is the minimum number of shares needed to ensure the election of one director?

    [2]
    View model solution

    Minimum Shares Needed to Elect One Director (Cumulative Voting):

    • Total Shares Outstanding (NN) = 320,000320,000
    • Total Directors to be Elected (DD) = 77
    • Directors Desired to Elect (dd) = 11Shares Needed=d×ND+1+1=1×320,0007+1+1=320,0008+1=40,000+1=40,001 shares\text{Shares Needed} = \frac{d \times N}{D + 1} + 1 = \frac{1 \times 320,000}{7 + 1} + 1 = \frac{320,000}{8} + 1 = 40,000 + 1 = \mathbf{40,001 \text{ shares}}$ Conclusion: A shareholder group must control 40,001 shares to guarantee the election of one director.

Section B

Descriptive Answer Questions : Attempt any FIVE questions .

[5*10=50]
  1. Explain the potential conflict of interest between shareholders and managers, and between shareholders and creditors. How these conflicts can be resolved?

    [10]
    View model solution

    Potential Agency Conflicts and Resolution Mechanisms

    1. Conflicts Between Shareholders and Managers:

    • Nature: Managers may prioritize empire building, personal perquisites, or excessive compensation over maximizing stock price.
    • Resolution Mechanisms:
      • Executive stock options tying managerial compensation to long-term stock value.
      • Threat of hostile takeover and proxy fights by activist institutional investors.
      • Direct board oversight through independent non-executive director majority.

    2. Conflicts Between Shareholders and Creditors:

    • Nature: Shareholders taking speculative, high-risk gambles or issuing equal/senior debt that impairs bondholder safety.
    • Resolution Mechanisms:
      • Restrictive loan covenants prohibiting excessive dividend payouts and mandating minimum liquidity ratios.
      • Issuing convertible bonds that grant creditors equity upside participation.
  2. Describe the methods of issuing securities.

    [10]
    View model solution

    Methods of Issuing Securities in Corporate Finance

    1. Public Offering (Initial Public Offering / IPO & FPO): Selling securities to the general public through licensed merchant banking underwriters.
    2. Rights Offering (Privileged Subscription): Offering new shares directly to existing shareholders pro-rata at a discounted subscription price.
    3. Private Placement: Direct institutional sale of entire security tranches to sophisticated accredited investors (e.g., pension funds, insurance companies).
    4. Bonus Shares / Stock Dividends: Capitalizing retained earnings by issuing free proportional shares to existing owners.
  3. Mega Company can lease equipment for three years, making annual payments of Rs. 150,000 per year at the end of each year or they can buy the equipment for Rs. 300,000. At the end of third years, the equipment will have no salvage value. The firm’s before tax cost of debt is 10 percent. The company uses straight-line depreciation and has a 40 percent tax rate..

    a. Calculate cost of leasing.

    b. Calculate cost of purchasing. Should the machine be leased or purchased?

    c. The appropriate discount rate for cash flows used in the analysis is the firm’s after-tax cost of debt, why?

    [10]
    View model solution

    Mega Company Lease vs. Buy Analysis:

    • Cost of Equipment = Rs. 300,000\text{Rs. } 300,000, Useful Life = 3 years, Salvage = 0.
    • Annual Lease Payment = Rs. 150,000\text{Rs. } 150,000 at year-end.
    • Pre-tax Cost of Debt (kdk_d) = 10%10\%, Tax Rate (tt) = 40%40\%.
    • After-tax discount rate =kd(1t)=10%(10.40)=6%= k_d(1 - t) = 10\%(1 - 0.40) = \mathbf{6\%}.

    a. Present Value Cost of Leasing:

    • After-tax Lease Payment =150,000(10.40)=Rs. 90,000= 150,000(1 - 0.40) = \text{Rs. } 90,000 per year.
      PVIFA6%,3=1(1.06)30.06=2.67301PVIFA_{6\%, 3} = \frac{1 - (1.06)^{-3}}{0.06} = 2.67301
      PV(Cost of Leasing)=90,000×2.67301=Rs. 240,571PV(\text{Cost of Leasing}) = 90,000 \times 2.67301 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 240,571}

    b. Present Value Cost of Purchasing:

    • Initial Cash Outlay =Rs. 300,000= \text{Rs. } 300,000.
    • Annual Straight-Line Depreciation =300,0003=Rs. 100,000= \frac{300,000}{3} = \text{Rs. } 100,000.
    • Annual Depreciation Tax Shield =100,000×0.40=Rs. 40,000= 100,000 \times 0.40 = \text{Rs. } 40,000.
      PV(Tax Shield)=40,000×PVIFA6%,3=40,000×2.67301=Rs. 106,920PV(\text{Tax Shield}) = 40,000 \times PVIFA_{6\%, 3} = 40,000 \times 2.67301 = \text{Rs. } 106,920
      PV(Cost of Purchasing)=300,000106,920=Rs. 193,080PV(\text{Cost of Purchasing}) = 300,000 - 106,920 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 193,080}

    Decision: The machine should be PURCHASED because the net cost of owning (Rs. 193,080) is significantly lower than leasing (Rs. 240,571).


    c. Why Use After-Tax Cost of Debt as Discount Rate:

    Lease payments and depreciation tax shields are contractual, predictable cash flows with risk equivalent to the firm’s debt obligations. Therefore, discounting at the after-tax cost of debt appropriately matches the risk profile.

  4. Alpha Paint Corporation has a convertible subordinated bond with a coupon rate of 10 percent. It has a face value of Rs. 1,000 and matures in 10 years. The common stock is currently selling at Rs. 200 per share. The conversion ratio is 4 and the interest rate on similar risk bond is 12 percent.

    a. What is the conversion price?

    b. Calculate initial conversion value

    c. Compute initial conversion premium.

    d. What are the reasons for using convertible securities?

    [10]
    View model solution

    Alpha Paint Corporation Convertible Subordinated Bond:

    • Face Value (MM) = Rs. 1,000\text{Rs. } 1,000, Coupon = 10%10\%, Maturity = 10 years.

    • Stock Price (P0P_0) = Rs. 200\text{Rs. } 200, Conversion Ratio (CRCR) = 4.

    • a. Conversion Price (PcP_c):

      Pc=Face ValueCR=1,0004=Rs. 250P_c = \frac{\text{Face Value}}{CR} = \frac{1,000}{4} = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 250}

    • b. Initial Conversion Value (CvC_v):

      Cv=CR×P0=4×200=Rs. 800C_v = CR \times P_0 = 4 \times 200 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 800}

    • c. Initial Conversion Premium:

      Premium Amount=MCv=1,000800=Rs. 200\text{Premium Amount} = M - C_v = 1,000 - 800 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 200}
      Premium Percentage=200800×100=25.0%\text{Premium Percentage} = \frac{200}{800} \times 100 = \mathbf{25.0\%}

    • d. Reasons for Using Convertible Securities:

      1. Lower Borrowing Coupon: Allows issuing debt at sub-market coupon rates.
      2. Deferred Equity Financing: Sells future common equity at a premium (Pc=250P_c = 250 vs. P0=200P_0 = 200).
  5. Janakpur Textile Company’s balance sheet is given below:

    Balance Sheet as of December 31, 2023
    Cash Rs. 200,000 Accounts payable Rs. 200,000
    Account receivable 350,000 Accruals 100,000
    Inventory 450,000 Notes payable 300,000
    Total current assets R s. 1,000,000 Total current liabilities Rs. 600,000
    Net fixed assets 2,000,000 Common stock 1,500,000
    Retained earnings 900,000
    Total assets Rs. 3,000,000 Total liabilities and equity Rs. 3,000,000

    Sales are expected to increase from Rs. 10,000,000 in 2023 to Rs. 15,000,000 in 2024. Firm’s after-tax profit margin is forecasted to be 10 percent and its dividend payout ratio will be 70 percent. .

    a. What is the firm’s additional fund needed for the year 2024 if company is running at full capacity? Use AFN equation. b. Prepare Janakpur Textile Company’s pro-forma balance sheet of as of December 31, 2024

    [10]
    View model solution

    Janakpur Textile Company AFN & Pro-Forma Analysis:

    • Base Sales 2023 (S0S_0) = Rs. 10M\text{Rs. } 10\text{M}, Projected 2024 (S1S_1) = Rs. 15M    ΔS=Rs. 5M\text{Rs. } 15\text{M} \implies \Delta S = \text{Rs. } 5\text{M}.
    • Operating at full capacity     \implies Total Assets (AA^*) = Rs. 3M\text{Rs. } 3\text{M}.
    • Spontaneous Liabilities (LL^*) = Accounts Payable (200k200k) + Accruals (100k100k) = Rs. 300,000\text{Rs. } 300,000.
    • Profit Margin (MM) = 10%=0.1010\% = 0.10, Dividend Payout (dd) = 70%    b=30%=0.3070\% \implies b = 30\% = 0.30.

    a. AFN Equation:

    AFN=(AS0)ΔS(LS0)ΔSM(S1)(b)AFN = \left(\frac{A^*}{S_0}\right)\Delta S - \left(\frac{L^*}{S_0}\right)\Delta S - M(S_1)(b)
    AFN=(3,000,00010,000,000)5,000,000(300,00010,000,000)5,000,000(0.10×15,000,000×0.30)AFN = \left(\frac{3,000,000}{10,000,000}\right)5,000,000 - \left(\frac{300,000}{10,000,000}\right)5,000,000 - (0.10 \times 15,000,000 \times 0.30)
    AFN=(0.30×5,000,000)(0.03×5,000,000)450,000=1,500,000150,000450,000=Rs. 900,000AFN = (0.30 \times 5,000,000) - (0.03 \times 5,000,000) - 450,000 = 1,500,000 - 150,000 - 450,000 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 900,000}

    b. Pro-Forma Balance Sheet (Dec 31, 2024):

    • Assets (50%50\% growth): Current Assets Rs. 1,500,000\text{Rs. } 1,500,000, Net Fixed Assets Rs. 3,000,000    \text{Rs. } 3,000,000 \implies Total Assets = Rs. 4,500,000.
    • Liabilities & Equity: A/P Rs. 300,000\text{Rs. } 300,000, Accruals Rs. 150,000\text{Rs. } 150,000, Notes Payable Rs. 300,000\text{Rs. } 300,000, Common Stock Rs. 1,500,000\text{Rs. } 1,500,000, Retained Earnings (900k+450k=Rs. 1,350,000900k + 450k = \text{Rs. } 1,350,000), AFN (plug) = Rs. 900,000     \implies Total Liab & Equity = Rs. 4,500,000.
  6. Kapil set out to tour Singapore in January 2024. He had set aside NR 300,000 for his tour. On January 16, 2024, he went to Baluwatar and exchanged NR 300,000 for SGD. On that very day, Nepal Rastra Bank’s Bid rate for one unit of SGD was NR 69.13 and its Ask rate was NR 69.61 for one unit of SGD. Unluckily he had to cancel his trip to Singapore on January 22 for next couple of months. So, he again exchanged SGD for NR at the same rate quoted on January 16.

    a. How much SGD did he receive after exchanging NR 300,000 on January 16.

    b. How much NR did he receive on January 22 after selling the SGD?

    c. What is his gain or loss in buying and selling of SGD?

    d. What percent did he gain or lose his money?e. What is the Bid/Ask percentage spread?

    [10]
    View model solution

    Kapil Singapore Tour Forex Calculations:

    • NRB Quotes: Bid = NR 69.13 / SGD, Ask = NR 69.61 / SGD. Initial Funds = NR 300,000.

    • a. SGD Received on January 16:

      SGD Received=300,000Ask Rate=300,00069.61=4,309.73 SGD\text{SGD Received} = \frac{300,000}{\text{Ask Rate}} = \frac{300,000}{69.61} = \mathbf{4,309.73 \text{ SGD}}

    • b. NR Received on January 22:

      NR Received=4,309.73×Bid Rate=4,309.73×69.13=NR 297,931.63\text{NR Received} = 4,309.73 \times \text{Bid Rate} = 4,309.73 \times 69.13 = \mathbf{\text{NR } 297,931.63}

    • c. Net Gain or Loss:

      Net Loss=300,000297,931.63=NR 2,068.37 loss\text{Net Loss} = 300,000 - 297,931.63 = \mathbf{\text{NR } 2,068.37 \text{ loss}}

    • d. Percentage Loss:

      % Loss=2,068.37300,000×100=0.689%\% \text{ Loss} = \frac{2,068.37}{300,000} \times 100 = \mathbf{0.689\%}

    • e. Bid-Ask Percentage Spread:

      % Spread=AskBidAsk×100=69.6169.1369.61×100=0.4869.61×100=0.689%\% \text{ Spread} = \frac{\text{Ask} - \text{Bid}}{\text{Ask}} \times 100 = \frac{69.61 - 69.13}{69.61} \times 100 = \frac{0.48}{69.61} \times 100 = \mathbf{0.689\%}

Section C

Analytical Answer Questions : Attempt any TWO questions .

[2*15=30]
  1. Explain different types of mergers. Also discuss the rationales behind the mergers and acquisitions.

    [15]
    View model solution

    Corporate Mergers: Types and Strategic Rationales

    1. Types of Mergers: Horizontal, Vertical, Conglomerate, and Congeneric.
    2. Key Strategic Rationales:
      • Operational synergies and plant-level economies of scale.
      • Financial synergy through larger debt capacity and lower cost of capital.
      • Tax shield optimization from accumulated carry-forward losses.
      • Accelerated diversification and technological IP acquisition.
  2. The Himalayan Herbal Company has planned to raise long-term fund. Recently it has announced a rights offer to raise Rs 80 million for a new plant. The stock has Rs 100 par value and currently sells for Rs 250 per share, and there are 1.6 million shares outstanding

    a. What is the maximum possible subscription price? What is the minimum?

    b. If the subscription price is set at Rs 100 per share, how many shares must be sold?

    c. How many rights will it take to buy one share?

    d. What is the value of a right?

    e. What is the ex-rights price?

    f. Show how a shareholder with 2,000 shares before the offering and no desire (or money) to buy additional shares is not harmed by the rights offer

    [15]
    View model solution

    Himalayan Herbal Company Rights Offering:

    • Capital to Raise = Rs. 80,000,000\text{Rs. } 80,000,000, Existing Shares (N0N_0) = 1,600,0001,600,000, Par = Rs. 100\text{Rs. } 100, Market Price (P0P_0) = Rs. 250\text{Rs. } 250.

    • a. Subscription Price Limits: Maximum =P0=Rs. 250= P_0 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 250}; Minimum =Par Value=Rs. 100= \text{Par Value} = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 100}.

    • b. Shares to be Sold (S=100S = 100): N=80,000,000100=800,000 sharesN = \frac{80,000,000}{100} = \mathbf{800,000 \text{ shares}}.

    • c. Rights per Share (NrN_r): Nr=1,600,000800,000=2 rightsN_r = \frac{1,600,000}{800,000} = \mathbf{2 \text{ rights}}.

    • d. Value of a Right (RR): R=2501002+1=1503=Rs. 50R = \frac{250 - 100}{2 + 1} = \frac{150}{3} = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 50}.

    • e. Ex-Rights Price (PeP_e): Pe=25050=Rs. 200P_e = 250 - 50 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 200}.

    • f. Shareholder Holding 2,000 Shares (Sells Rights):

      • Initial Wealth =2,000×250=Rs. 500,000= 2,000 \times 250 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 500,000}.
      • Sells 2,000 rights at Rs 50 =Rs. 100,000= \text{Rs. } 100,000 cash.
      • Stock value after rights =2,000×200=Rs. 400,000= 2,000 \times 200 = \text{Rs. } 400,000.
      • Ending Wealth =400,000+100,000=Rs. 500,000= 400,000 + 100,000 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 500,000} (Wealth is completely intact).
  3. Modern Printing Press estimates that it will need an additional Rs 500,000 for the month of June due to the seasonal nature of its business. It has three options available to provide the needed funds:

    a. Establish a one-year line of credit for Rs 500,000 with a commercial bank. The commitment fee would be 1 percent, and the interest charged would be 12 percent per annum on the used funds. No minimum time on the use of the money.

    b. Forego the June trade discount of 2/10, net 40 on Rs 500,000 of accounts payable.

    c. Issue Rs 500,000 of sixty-day commercial paper at a 9 percent per annum interest rate. Since the funds are only required for only 30 days, the excess funds are invested in 6 percent per annum marketable securities for the month of July. The total transaction fee on purchasing and selling the marketable securities is 0.5 percent of the fair market value

    i. Calculate rupees cost of each alternative. Which alternatives result in the lowest rupees cost?

    ii. Is the source with the lowest expected cost necessarily the source to select? Why or why not?

    [15]
    View model solution

    Modern Printing Press Short-Term Financing (Rs. 500,000 for June / 30 Days):

    • Option a (Bank Line of Credit):
      • Commitment fee on full year =1%×500,000=Rs. 5,000= 1\% \times 500,000 = \text{Rs. } 5,000.
      • Interest for 30 days =500,000×12%×30360=Rs. 5,000= 500,000 \times 12\% \times \frac{30}{360} = \text{Rs. } 5,000.
      • Total Rupee Cost =5,000+5,000=Rs. 10,000= 5,000 + 5,000 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 10,000}.
    • Option b (Foregoing Trade Discount 2/10, net 40):
      • Cash discount lost =2%×500,000=Rs. 10,000= 2\% \times 500,000 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 10,000}.
    • Option c (60-Day Commercial Paper at 9% + Reinvestment at 6%):
      • CP interest for 60 days =500,000×9%×60360=Rs. 7,500= 500,000 \times 9\% \times \frac{60}{360} = \text{Rs. } 7,500.
      • Reinvestment income (July 30 days) =500,000×6%×30360=Rs. 2,500= 500,000 \times 6\% \times \frac{30}{360} = \text{Rs. } 2,500.
      • Transaction fee =0.5%×500,000=Rs. 2,500= 0.5\% \times 500,000 = \text{Rs. } 2,500.
      • Net Rupee Cost =7,5002,500+2,500=Rs. 7,500= 7,500 - 2,500 + 2,500 = \mathbf{\text{Rs. } 7,500}.
    • Recommendation: Commercial Paper (Option c) produces the lowest rupee cost (Rs. 7,500).