STT 201

Business Statistics

TU BBM · Semester 3 · BBM curriculum effective from 2021

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Unit 1: Unit 2: Describing Data Using Numerical Measures

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  1. Asked on 2022 Exam[5 marks]2022 paper

    Consider the following set of sample data:

    78 121 143 88 110 107 62 122 130 95 78 139 89 125

    Calculate the lower and upper quartiles.

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    Calculation of Lower (Q1Q_1) and Upper (Q3Q_3) Quartiles:

    Step 1: Arrange the Data in Ascending Order

    Given sample data (n=14n = 14): 78, 121, 143, 88, 110, 107, 62, 122, 130, 95, 78, 139, 89, 125

    Arranging in ascending order: 62, 78, 78, 88, 89, 95, 107, 110, 121, 122, 125, 130, 139, 143


    Step 2: Calculate Lower Quartile (Q1Q_1)

    Position of Q1=(n+14)th item=(14+14)th=3.75th item\text{Position of } Q_1 = \left(\frac{n + 1}{4}\right)^{\text{th}} \text{ item} = \left(\frac{14 + 1}{4}\right)^{\text{th}} = 3.75^{\text{th}} \text{ item}
    Q1=Value of 3rd item+0.75×(Value of 4th item−Value of 3rd item)Q_1 = \text{Value of } 3^{\text{rd}} \text{ item} + 0.75 \times (\text{Value of } 4^{\text{th}} \text{ item} - \text{Value of } 3^{\text{rd}} \text{ item})
    Q1=78+0.75×(88−78)=78+0.75×10=78+7.5=85.5Q_1 = 78 + 0.75 \times (88 - 78) = 78 + 0.75 \times 10 = 78 + 7.5 = \mathbf{85.5}

    (Note: Under the alternative integer-rank formula n/4=3.5thn/4 = 3.5^{\text{th}} item, Q1=88Q_1 = 88).


    Step 3: Calculate Upper Quartile (Q3Q_3)

    Position of Q3=(3(n+1)4)th item=(3×154)th=11.25th item\text{Position of } Q_3 = \left(\frac{3(n + 1)}{4}\right)^{\text{th}} \text{ item} = \left(\frac{3 \times 15}{4}\right)^{\text{th}} = 11.25^{\text{th}} \text{ item}
    Q3=Value of 11th item+0.25×(Value of 12th item−Value of 11th item)Q_3 = \text{Value of } 11^{\text{th}} \text{ item} + 0.25 \times (\text{Value of } 12^{\text{th}} \text{ item} - \text{Value of } 11^{\text{th}} \text{ item})
    Q3=125+0.25×(130−125)=125+0.25×5=125+1.25=126.25Q_3 = 125 + 0.25 \times (130 - 125) = 125 + 0.25 \times 5 = 125 + 1.25 = \mathbf{126.25}

    (Note: Under the alternative integer-rank formula 3n/4=10.5th3n/4 = 10.5^{\text{th}} item, Q3=125Q_3 = 125).

    Final Answer:

    • Lower Quartile (Q1Q_1): 85.5
    • Upper Quartile (Q3Q_3): 126.25
  2. Asked on 2022 Exam[5 marks]2022 paper

    If the coefficient of skewness is 0.5, first quartile is 8 and third quartile is 16, find the median of the distribution.

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    Calculation of Median from Bowley’s Skewness:

    Given Data:

    • First Quartile (Q1Q_1) = 88
    • Third Quartile (Q3Q_3) = 1616
    • Bowley’s Coefficient of Skewness (SkBSk_B) = 0.50.5

    Formula:

    Bowley’s coefficient of skewness based on quartiles is given by:

    SkB=Q3+Q1−2MdQ3−Q1Sk_B = \frac{Q_3 + Q_1 - 2M_d}{Q_3 - Q_1}


    Step-by-Step Substitution:

    0.5=16+8−2Md16−80.5 = \frac{16 + 8 - 2M_d}{16 - 8}
    0.5=24−2Md80.5 = \frac{24 - 2M_d}{8}

    Multiplying both sides by 88:

    0.5×8=24−2Md0.5 \times 8 = 24 - 2M_d
    4=24−2Md4 = 24 - 2M_d
    2Md=24−42M_d = 24 - 4
    2Md=202M_d = 20
    Md=202=10M_d = \frac{20}{2} = \mathbf{10}

    Final Answer: The median (MdM_d) of the distribution is 10.

  3. Asked on 2022 Exam[5 marks]2022 paper

    Compute the five number summaries from the following data and comment on the shape of the distribution:

    7 11 25 23 19 34 29 31 9 15 30
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    Five-Number Summary and Distribution Shape:

    Step 1: Arrange Data in Ascending Order

    Given data (n=11n = 11): 7, 11, 25, 23, 19, 34, 29, 31, 9, 15, 30

    Ordered data: 7, 9, 11, 15, 19, 23, 25, 29, 30, 31, 34


    Step 2: Compute the Five-Number Summary

    1. Minimum (MinMin): 7
    2. First Quartile (Q1Q_1):
      Position of Q1=(n+14)th=(11+14)th=3rd value=11\text{Position of } Q_1 = \left(\frac{n + 1}{4}\right)^{\text{th}} = \left(\frac{11 + 1}{4}\right)^{\text{th}} = 3^{\text{rd}} \text{ value} = \mathbf{11}
    3. Median (Q2Q_2):
      Position of Q2=(n+12)th=(11+12)th=6th value=23\text{Position of } Q_2 = \left(\frac{n + 1}{2}\right)^{\text{th}} = \left(\frac{11 + 1}{2}\right)^{\text{th}} = 6^{\text{th}} \text{ value} = \mathbf{23}
    4. Third Quartile (Q3Q_3):
      Position of Q3=(3(n+1)4)th=9th value=30\text{Position of } Q_3 = \left(\frac{3(n + 1)}{4}\right)^{\text{th}} = 9^{\text{th}} \text{ value} = \mathbf{30}
    5. Maximum (MaxMax): 34

    Summary Vector: [Min,Q1,Q2,Q3,Max]=[7,11,23,30,34][Min, Q_1, Q_2, Q_3, Max] = [7, 11, 23, 30, 34]


    Step 3: Comment on the Shape of the Distribution

    Compare quartile distances:

    • Distance from Q1Q_1 to Median: Q2−Q1=23−11=12Q_2 - Q_1 = 23 - 11 = 12
    • Distance from Median to Q3Q_3: Q3−Q2=30−23=7Q_3 - Q_2 = 30 - 23 = 7SkB=Q3+Q1−2Q2Q3−Q1=30+11−2(23)30−11=−519≈−0.263Sk_B = \frac{Q_3 + Q_1 - 2Q_2}{Q_3 - Q_1} = \frac{30 + 11 - 2(23)}{30 - 11} = \frac{-5}{19} \approx -0.263$

    Conclusion on Shape: Since (Q2−Q1)>(Q3−Q2)(Q_2 - Q_1) > (Q_3 - Q_2) (12>712 > 7) and Bowley’s skewness is negative (−0.263-0.263), the distribution has a longer tail to the left and is negatively skewed (skewed to the left).

  4. Asked on 2022 Exam[5 marks]2022 paper

    Find the mean and standard deviation from the following data related to age distribution of a class.

    Age (yrs) 15 16 17 18 19 20
    No of students 5 7 12 15 7 4
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    Mean and Standard Deviation of Age Distribution:

    Calculation Table:

    Age (XX) Students (ff) fXfX X2X^2 fX2fX^2
    15 5 75 225 1,125
    16 7 112 256 1,792
    17 12 204 289 3,468
    18 15 270 324 4,860
    19 7 133 361 2,527
    20 4 80 400 1,600
    Total N=∑f=50N = \sum f = \mathbf{50} ∑fX=874\sum fX = \mathbf{874} — ∑fX2=15,372\sum fX^2 = \mathbf{15,372}

    Step 1: Calculation of Mean (Xˉ\bar{X})

    Xˉ=∑fXN=87450=17.48 years\bar{X} = \frac{\sum fX}{N} = \frac{874}{50} = \mathbf{17.48 \text{ years}}

    Step 2: Calculation of Standard Deviation (σ\sigma)

    σ=∑fX2N−(∑fXN)2\sigma = \sqrt{\frac{\sum fX^2}{N} - \left(\frac{\sum fX}{N}\right)^2}
    σ=1537250−(17.48)2=307.44−305.5504=1.8896≈1.3746 years\sigma = \sqrt{\frac{15372}{50} - (17.48)^2} = \sqrt{307.44 - 305.5504} = \sqrt{1.8896} \approx \mathbf{1.3746 \text{ years}}

    Final Answer:

    • Mean Age: 17.48 years
    • Standard Deviation: 1.37 years
  5. Asked on 2022 Exam[5 marks]2022 paper

    The following table shows the monthly expenditure of people living in village A and village B of a country.

    Expenditure (000 Rs) 5 10 15 20 25 30
    No. of families in village A 4 14 51 20 10 4
    No. of families in village B 8 18 40 18 12 9

    Which village people have uniform expenditure on the basis of coefficient of variation?

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    Comparison of Expenditure Uniformity Between Village A and Village B Using CV:

    Calculation Table:

    Expenditure XX (Rs 000) X2X^2 fAf_A fAXf_A X fAX2f_A X^2 fBf_B fBXf_B X fBX2f_B X^2
    5 25 4 20 100 8 40 200
    10 100 14 140 1,400 18 180 1,800
    15 225 51 765 11,475 40 600 9,000
    20 400 20 400 8,000 18 360 7,200
    25 625 10 250 6,250 12 300 7,500
    30 900 4 120 3,600 9 270 8,100
    Total — NA=103N_A = 103 1,695\mathbf{1,695} 30,825\mathbf{30,825} NB=105N_B = 105 1,750\mathbf{1,750} 33,800\mathbf{33,800}

    Step 1: Village A Statistics

    XˉA=∑fAXNA=1695103=16.46 thousand Rs\bar{X}_A = \frac{\sum f_A X}{N_A} = \frac{1695}{103} = \mathbf{16.46 \text{ thousand Rs}}
    σA=∑fAX2NA−XˉA2=30825103−(16.456)2=299.27−270.81=28.46=5.33\sigma_A = \sqrt{\frac{\sum f_A X^2}{N_A} - \bar{X}_A^2} = \sqrt{\frac{30825}{103} - (16.456)^2} = \sqrt{299.27 - 270.81} = \sqrt{28.46} = \mathbf{5.33}
    CVA=σAXˉA×100=5.3316.46×100=32.38%CV_A = \frac{\sigma_A}{\bar{X}_A} \times 100 = \frac{5.33}{16.46} \times 100 = \mathbf{32.38\%}

    Step 2: Village B Statistics

    XˉB=∑fBXNB=1750105=16.67 thousand Rs\bar{X}_B = \frac{\sum f_B X}{N_B} = \frac{1750}{105} = \mathbf{16.67 \text{ thousand Rs}}
    σB=∑fBX2NB−XˉB2=33800105−(16.667)2=321.90−277.78=44.12=6.64\sigma_B = \sqrt{\frac{\sum f_B X^2}{N_B} - \bar{X}_B^2} = \sqrt{\frac{33800}{105} - (16.667)^2} = \sqrt{321.90 - 277.78} = \sqrt{44.12} = \mathbf{6.64}
    CVB=σBXˉB×100=6.6416.67×100=39.83%CV_B = \frac{\sigma_B}{\bar{X}_B} \times 100 = \frac{6.64}{16.67} \times 100 = \mathbf{39.83\%}

    Conclusion:

    Since CVA(32.38%)<CVB(39.83%)CV_A (32.38\%) < CV_B (39.83\%), Village A has a lower coefficient of variation, meaning the people of Village A have more uniform (consistent) monthly expenditure compared to Village B.

  6. Asked on 2023 Exam[2 marks]2023 paper

    If the values of upper quartile and lower quartile are 63 and 59 respectively, then calculate the coefficient of quartile deviation.

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    Coefficient of Quartile Deviation:

    Given:

    • Upper Quartile (Q3Q_3) = 6363
    • Lower Quartile (Q1Q_1) = 5959

    Formula:

    Coefficient of QD=Q3−Q1Q3+Q1\text{Coefficient of } QD = \frac{Q_3 - Q_1}{Q_3 + Q_1}

    Calculation:

    Coefficient of QD=63−5963+59=4122≈0.0328(or 3.28%)\text{Coefficient of } QD = \frac{63 - 59}{63 + 59} = \frac{4}{122} \approx \mathbf{0.0328} \quad (\text{or } 3.28\%)

    Final Answer: The coefficient of quartile deviation is 0.0328.

  7. Asked on 2023 Exam[2 marks]2023 paper

    In a moderately asymmetric distribution, the values of mean and mode are 20 and 23 respectively. Compute the value of median.

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    Calculation of Median from Empirical Relationship:

    Given:

    • Mean=20\text{Mean} = 20
    • Mode=23\text{Mode} = 23

    Empirical Formula for Moderately Asymmetric Distributions:

    Mode=3Median−2Mean\text{Mode} = 3\text{Median} - 2\text{Mean}

    Calculation:

    23=3Median−2(20)23 = 3\text{Median} - 2(20)
    23=3Median−4023 = 3\text{Median} - 40
    3Median=23+403\text{Median} = 23 + 40
    3Median=63  ⟹  Median=633=213\text{Median} = 63 \implies \text{Median} = \frac{63}{3} = \mathbf{21}

    Final Answer: The value of the median is 21.

  8. Asked on 2023 Exam[2 marks]2023 paper

    Calculate coefficient of variation, when values of mean and standard deviation are 32 and 17 respectively.

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    Calculation of Coefficient of Variation (CV):

    Given:

    • Mean (Xˉ)=32\text{Mean } (\bar{X}) = 32
    • Standard Deviation (σ)=17\text{Standard Deviation } (\sigma) = 17

    Formula:

    CV=σXˉ×100CV = \frac{\sigma}{\bar{X}} \times 100

    Calculation:

    CV=1732×100=53.125%CV = \frac{17}{32} \times 100 = \mathbf{53.125\%}

    Final Answer: The Coefficient of Variation is 53.125%.

  9. Asked on 2023 Exam[6 marks]2023 paper

    The following table shows the marks distribution of students in a subject:

    Marks 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60
    Frequency 10 25 45 20 18 12

    Find the lowest marks of the top 20% of the students.

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    Lowest Marks of the Top 20% of Students (P80P_{80}):

    Concept:

    The lowest marks obtained by the top 20% of students corresponds to the 80th80^{\text{th}} Percentile (P80P_{80}) of the distribution.


    Cumulative Frequency Table:

    Marks Frequency (ff) Cumulative Frequency (cfcf)
    0 – 10 10 10
    10 – 20 25 35
    20 – 30 45 80
    30 – 40 20 100
    40 – 50 18 118
    50 – 60 12 130
    Total N=130N = 130 —

    Step 1: Locate P80P_{80} Class Position

    Position of P80=80×N100=80×130100=104th item\text{Position of } P_{80} = \frac{80 \times N}{100} = \frac{80 \times 130}{100} = 104^{\text{th}} \text{ item}

    The cumulative frequency just greater than 104 is 118, which corresponds to the class 40 – 50.


    Step 2: Apply the Percentile Interpolation Formula

    P80=L+(80N100−cff)×hP_{80} = L + \left(\frac{\frac{80N}{100} - cf}{f}\right) \times h

    Where:

    • L=40L = 40 (Lower limit of P80P_{80} class)
    • cf=100cf = 100 (Cumulative frequency of the preceding class)
    • f=18f = 18 (Frequency of P80P_{80} class)
    • h=10h = 10 (Class width)
    P80=40+(104−10018)×10=40+(418)×10=40+2.22=42.22P_{80} = 40 + \left(\frac{104 - 100}{18}\right) \times 10 = 40 + \left(\frac{4}{18}\right) \times 10 = 40 + 2.22 = \mathbf{42.22}

    Final Answer: The lowest marks scored by the top 20% of the students is 42.22 marks.

  10. Asked on 2023 Exam[6 marks]2023 paper

    The following table represents the marks of 100 students.

    Marks 0-20 20-40 40-60 60-80 80-100
    Students 14 - 27 - 15

    Find the missing frequencies when modal marks is 48.

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    Calculation of Missing Frequencies Given Mode = 48:

    Given Data:

    • Total students (NN) = 100100
    • Mode=48\text{Mode} = 48

    Let the missing frequency for class 20−4020-40 be f1f_1 and for 60−8060-80 be f2f_2.

    Marks Frequency (ff)
    0 – 20 14
    20 – 40 f1f_1
    40 – 60 27
    60 – 80 f2f_2
    80 – 100 15
    Total N=100N = 100

    Step 1: Formulate Total Frequency Equation

    ∑f=14+f1+27+f2+15=100\sum f = 14 + f_1 + 27 + f_2 + 15 = 100
    f1+f2+56=100  ⟹  f1+f2=44— (1)f_1 + f_2 + 56 = 100 \implies f_1 + f_2 = 44 \quad \text{--- (1)}

    Step 2: Use Mode Formula

    Since Mode=48\text{Mode} = 48, it lies in the modal class 40 – 60.

    • Lower limit (LL) = 4040
    • Frequency of modal class (fmf_m) = 2727
    • Frequency of pre-modal class (f0f_0) = f1f_1
    • Frequency of post-modal class (f2′f_2') = f2f_2
    • Class height (hh) = 2020Mode=L+[fm−f02fm−f0−f2′]×h\text{Mode} = L + \left[\frac{f_m - f_0}{2f_m - f_0 - f_2'}\right] \times h$
      48=40+[27−f12(27)−f1−f2]×2048 = 40 + \left[\frac{27 - f_1}{2(27) - f_1 - f_2}\right] \times 20
      8=[27−f154−(f1+f2)]×208 = \left[\frac{27 - f_1}{54 - (f_1 + f_2)}\right] \times 20

    Substitute f1+f2=44f_1 + f_2 = 44 from Equation (1):

    8=[27−f154−44]×208 = \left[\frac{27 - f_1}{54 - 44}\right] \times 20
    8=[27−f110]×208 = \left[\frac{27 - f_1}{10}\right] \times 20
    8=2(27−f1)8 = 2(27 - f_1)
    4=27−f1  ⟹  f1=27−4=234 = 27 - f_1 \implies f_1 = 27 - 4 = \mathbf{23}

    Now find f2f_2 from Equation (1):

    f2=44−23=21f_2 = 44 - 23 = \mathbf{21}

    Final Answer: The missing frequencies are f1=23f_1 = 23 (for 20–40) and f2=21f_2 = 21 (for 60–80).

  11. Asked on 2023 Exam[6 marks]2023 paper

    From the following income distribution of 500 workers in a locality, find the median value of the income distribution.

    Income (000 Rs) No. of workers
    Below 20 50
    20-40 90
    40-60 150
    60 - 80 100
    80 - 100 60
    100 & above 50
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    Calculation of Median Income of 500 Workers:

    Cumulative Frequency Table:

    Income (Rs '000) Workers (ff) Cumulative Frequency (cfcf)
    0 – 20 50 50
    20 – 40 90 140
    40 – 60 150 290
    60 – 80 100 390
    80 – 100 60 450
    100 and above 50 500
    Total N=500N = 500 —

    Step 1: Identify Median Class

    Position of Median=N2=5002=250th item\text{Position of Median} = \frac{N}{2} = \frac{500}{2} = 250^{\text{th}} \text{ item}

    The cumulative frequency just greater than 250 is 290, so the Median Class is 40 – 60.


    Step 2: Apply Median Formula

    Md=L+(N2−cff)×hM_d = L + \left(\frac{\frac{N}{2} - cf}{f}\right) \times h

    Where:

    • L=40L = 40
    • cf=140cf = 140
    • f=150f = 150
    • h=20h = 20Md=40+(250−140150)×20=40+(110150)×20=40+14.67=54.67 (in ’000 Rs)M_d = 40 + \left(\frac{250 - 140}{150}\right) \times 20 = 40 + \left(\frac{110}{150}\right) \times 20 = 40 + 14.67 = \mathbf{54.67 \text{ (in '000 Rs)}}$

    Final Answer: The median income of the workers is Rs 54,667 (or 54.67 thousand Rs).

  12. Asked on 2023 Exam[6 marks]2023 paper

    From the following income distribution, calculate the appropriate measures of dispersion.

    Daily income (Rs) Number of workers
    Below 50 10
    51-100 18
    101-150 25
    151-200 20
    201-250 16
    250 and above 11
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    Appropriate Measure of Dispersion for Open-Ended Distribution:

    Justification:

    The given distribution has open-ended classes (“Below 50” and “250 and above”). For open-ended distributions, neither the Range nor the Standard Deviation can be calculated without arbitrary class boundaries. Therefore, the Quartile Deviation (Semi-Interquartile Range) is the uniquely appropriate measure of dispersion.


    Cumulative Frequency with True Class Boundaries:

    (Correction factor =(51−50)/2=0.5= (51 - 50)/2 = 0.5)

    Daily Income (Rs) ff Cumulative Frequency (cfcf)
    Below 50.5 10 10
    50.5 – 100.5 18 28
    100.5 – 150.5 25 53
    150.5 – 200.5 20 73
    200.5 – 250.5 16 89
    250.5 & above 11 100
    Total N=100N = 100 —

    Step 1: Lower Quartile (Q1Q_1)

    Position of Q1=N4=1004=25th item  ⟹  Class: 50.5 – 100.5\text{Position of } Q_1 = \frac{N}{4} = \frac{100}{4} = 25^{\text{th}} \text{ item} \implies \text{Class: 50.5 – 100.5}
    Q1=50.5+(25−1018)×50=50.5+(1518)×50=50.5+41.67=92.17Q_1 = 50.5 + \left(\frac{25 - 10}{18}\right) \times 50 = 50.5 + \left(\frac{15}{18}\right) \times 50 = 50.5 + 41.67 = \mathbf{92.17}

    Step 2: Upper Quartile (Q3Q_3)

    Position of Q3=3N4=3004=75th item  ⟹  Class: 200.5 – 250.5\text{Position of } Q_3 = \frac{3N}{4} = \frac{300}{4} = 75^{\text{th}} \text{ item} \implies \text{Class: 200.5 – 250.5}
    Q3=200.5+(75−7316)×50=200.5+(216)×50=200.5+6.25=206.75Q_3 = 200.5 + \left(\frac{75 - 73}{16}\right) \times 50 = 200.5 + \left(\frac{2}{16}\right) \times 50 = 200.5 + 6.25 = \mathbf{206.75}

    Step 3: Quartile Deviation (QDQD)

    QD=Q3−Q12=206.75−92.172=114.582=57.29QD = \frac{Q_3 - Q_1}{2} = \frac{206.75 - 92.17}{2} = \frac{114.58}{2} = \mathbf{57.29}
    Coefficient of QD=Q3−Q1Q3+Q1=114.58298.92=0.3833\text{Coefficient of } QD = \frac{Q_3 - Q_1}{Q_3 + Q_1} = \frac{114.58}{298.92} = \mathbf{0.3833}

    Final Answer:

    • Quartile Deviation: Rs 57.29
    • Coefficient of QD: 0.3833
  13. Asked on 2023 Exam[6 marks]2023 paper

    The following information was obtained from two investment companies A and B:

    Company A Company B
    Average return (000Rs) 28 37
    Variance 25 36
    No. of observations 100 100

    Calculate combined standard deviation.

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    Calculation of Combined Standard Deviation:

    Given Data:

    • Company A: n1=100n_1 = 100, Xˉ1=28\bar{X}_1 = 28, σ12=25\sigma_1^2 = 25
    • Company B: n2=100n_2 = 100, Xˉ2=37\bar{X}_2 = 37, σ22=36\sigma_2^2 = 36

    Step 1: Combined Mean (Xˉ12\bar{X}_{12})

    Xˉ12=n1Xˉ1+n2Xˉ2n1+n2=100(28)+100(37)100+100=2800+3700200=6500200=32.5\bar{X}_{12} = \frac{n_1 \bar{X}_1 + n_2 \bar{X}_2}{n_1 + n_2} = \frac{100(28) + 100(37)}{100 + 100} = \frac{2800 + 3700}{200} = \frac{6500}{200} = \mathbf{32.5}

    Step 2: Deviations of Individual Means from Combined Mean

    d1=Xˉ1−Xˉ12=28−32.5=−4.5  ⟹  d12=20.25d_1 = \bar{X}_1 - \bar{X}_{12} = 28 - 32.5 = -4.5 \implies d_1^2 = 20.25
    d2=Xˉ2−Xˉ12=37−32.5=+4.5  ⟹  d22=20.25d_2 = \bar{X}_2 - \bar{X}_{12} = 37 - 32.5 = +4.5 \implies d_2^2 = 20.25

    Step 3: Combined Variance (σ122\sigma_{12}^2)

    σ122=n1(σ12+d12)+n2(σ22+d22)n1+n2\sigma_{12}^2 = \frac{n_1(\sigma_1^2 + d_1^2) + n_2(\sigma_2^2 + d_2^2)}{n_1 + n_2}
    σ122=100(25+20.25)+100(36+20.25)200\sigma_{12}^2 = \frac{100(25 + 20.25) + 100(36 + 20.25)}{200}
    σ122=100(45.25)+100(56.25)200=4525+5625200=10150200=50.75\sigma_{12}^2 = \frac{100(45.25) + 100(56.25)}{200} = \frac{4525 + 5625}{200} = \frac{10150}{200} = \mathbf{50.75}

    Step 4: Combined Standard Deviation (σ12\sigma_{12})

    σ12=50.75≈7.1239 thousand Rs\sigma_{12} = \sqrt{50.75} \approx \mathbf{7.1239 \text{ thousand Rs}}

    Final Answer: The combined standard deviation is Rs 7,124 (or 7.12 thousand Rs).

  14. Asked on 2023 Exam[10 marks]2023 paper

    From the following distribution, find the coefficient of skewness. Also comment the result.

    Monthly income (Rs 000) Number of workers
    0-100 15
    100-200 50
    200-300 75
    300-400 40
    400-500 30
    500- 600 10
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    Calculation of Karl Pearson’s Coefficient of Skewness:

    Calculation Table:

    Monthly Income (Rs 000) Mid-point (mm) ff d=m−250100d = \frac{m - 250}{100} fdfd fd2fd^2
    0 – 100 50 15 -2 -30 60
    100 – 200 150 50 -1 -50 50
    200 – 300 250 75 0 0 0
    300 – 400 350 40 1 40 40
    400 – 500 450 30 2 60 120
    500 – 600 550 10 3 30 90
    Total — N=220N = 220 — ∑fd=50\sum fd = 50 ∑fd2=360\sum fd^2 = 360

    Step 1: Mean (Xˉ\bar{X})

    Xˉ=A+(∑fdN)×h=250+(50220)×100=250+22.73=272.73 thousand Rs\bar{X} = A + \left(\frac{\sum fd}{N}\right) \times h = 250 + \left(\frac{50}{220}\right) \times 100 = 250 + 22.73 = \mathbf{272.73 \text{ thousand Rs}}

    Step 2: Mode (MoM_o)

    Modal class is 200 – 300 (highest frequency f1=75f_1 = 75).

    • L=200L = 200, f0=50f_0 = 50, f2=40f_2 = 40, h=100h = 100Mo=L+[f1−f02f1−f0−f2]×h=200+[75−502(75)−50−40]×100=200+(2560)×100=241.67M_o = L + \left[\frac{f_1 - f_0}{2f_1 - f_0 - f_2}\right] \times h = 200 + \left[\frac{75 - 50}{2(75) - 50 - 40}\right] \times 100 = 200 + \left(\frac{25}{60}\right) \times 100 = \mathbf{241.67}$

    Step 3: Standard Deviation (σ\sigma)

    σ=h×∑fd2N−(∑fdN)2=100×360220−(50220)2=100×1.6364−0.05165=100×1.2589=125.89\sigma = h \times \sqrt{\frac{\sum fd^2}{N} - \left(\frac{\sum fd}{N}\right)^2} = 100 \times \sqrt{\frac{360}{220} - \left(\frac{50}{220}\right)^2} = 100 \times \sqrt{1.6364 - 0.05165} = 100 \times 1.2589 = \mathbf{125.89}

    Step 4: Karl Pearson’s Coefficient of Skewness (SkpSk_p)

    Skp=Xˉ−Moσ=272.73−241.67125.89=31.06125.89=+0.2467Sk_p = \frac{\bar{X} - M_o}{\sigma} = \frac{272.73 - 241.67}{125.89} = \frac{31.06}{125.89} = \mathbf{+0.2467}

    Interpretation: The distribution exhibits a positive skewness (Skp=+0.2467Sk_p = +0.2467), indicating that the distribution has a longer tail to the right and a concentration of lower to middle-income workers.

  15. Asked on 2023 Exam[10 marks]2023 paper

    From the following marks distribution of students of a campus, calculate the coefficient of kurtosis. Also, interpret the result.

    Marks Below 10 10 - 20 20 - 30 30 - 40 40 - 50 50 & above
    No. of students 50 100 150 90 60 50
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    Calculation of Percentile Coefficient of Kurtosis (KK):

    Concept:

    The Percentile Coefficient of Kurtosis is given by:

    K=QDP90−P10=Q3−Q12P90−P10K = \frac{QD}{P_{90} - P_{10}} = \frac{\frac{Q_3 - Q_1}{2}}{P_{90} - P_{10}}


    Cumulative Frequency Table:

    Marks Frequency (ff) Cumulative Frequency (cfcf)
    0 – 10 50 50
    10 – 20 100 150
    20 – 30 150 300
    30 – 40 90 390
    40 – 50 60 450
    50 – 60 50 500
    Total N=500N = 500 —

    Step 1: Calculate Q1Q_1 and Q3Q_3

    • Q1Q_1 position: N4=125th  ⟹  \frac{N}{4} = 125^{\text{th}} \implies Class 10 – 20
      Q1=10+(125−50100)×10=10+7.5=17.5Q_1 = 10 + \left(\frac{125 - 50}{100}\right) \times 10 = 10 + 7.5 = \mathbf{17.5}
    • Q3Q_3 position: 3N4=375th  ⟹  \frac{3N}{4} = 375^{\text{th}} \implies Class 30 – 40
      Q3=30+(375−30090)×10=30+8.33=38.33Q_3 = 30 + \left(\frac{375 - 300}{90}\right) \times 10 = 30 + 8.33 = \mathbf{38.33}
    • Semi-Interquartile Range (QDQD):
      QD=38.33−17.52=20.832=10.415QD = \frac{38.33 - 17.5}{2} = \frac{20.83}{2} = \mathbf{10.415}

    Step 2: Calculate P10P_{10} and P90P_{90}

    • P10P_{10} position: 10N100=50th  ⟹  \frac{10N}{100} = 50^{\text{th}} \implies Exactly the upper boundary of class 0–10:
      P10=10.0P_{10} = \mathbf{10.0}
    • P90P_{90} position: 90N100=450th  ⟹  \frac{90N}{100} = 450^{\text{th}} \implies Exactly the upper boundary of class 40–50:
      P90=50.0P_{90} = \mathbf{50.0}

    Step 3: Compute Kurtosis (KK)

    K=10.41550.0−10.0=10.41540=0.2604K = \frac{10.415}{50.0 - 10.0} = \frac{10.415}{40} = \mathbf{0.2604}

    Interpretation:

    • For a normal (mesokurtic) distribution, K=0.263K = 0.263.
    • Since K=0.2604<0.263K = 0.2604 < 0.263, the distribution is slightly platykurtic (flatter-topped than normal).
  16. Asked on 2024 Exam[2 marks]2024 paper

    Find the quartile deviation if first and third quartiles are 18 and 30 respectively.

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    Quartile Deviation (QDQD):

    Given:

    • First Quartile (Q1Q_1) = 1818
    • Third Quartile (Q3Q_3) = 3030

    Formula:

    QD=Q3−Q12QD = \frac{Q_3 - Q_1}{2}

    Calculation:

    QD=30−182=122=6QD = \frac{30 - 18}{2} = \frac{12}{2} = \mathbf{6}

    Final Answer: The Quartile Deviation is 6.

  17. Asked on 2024 Exam[2 marks]2024 paper

    Calculate the combined mean from the following information.

    Group A Group B
    Mean 65 60
    Number of observations 40 60
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    Combined Mean Calculation:

    Given:

    • Group A: n1=40n_1 = 40, Xˉ1=65\bar{X}_1 = 65
    • Group B: n2=60n_2 = 60, Xˉ2=60\bar{X}_2 = 60

    Formula:

    Xˉ12=n1Xˉ1+n2Xˉ2n1+n2\bar{X}_{12} = \frac{n_1 \bar{X}_1 + n_2 \bar{X}_2}{n_1 + n_2}

    Calculation:

    Xˉ12=40(65)+60(60)40+60=2600+3600100=6200100=62\bar{X}_{12} = \frac{40(65) + 60(60)}{40 + 60} = \frac{2600 + 3600}{100} = \frac{6200}{100} = \mathbf{62}

    Final Answer: The combined mean of the two groups is 62.

  18. Asked on 2024 Exam[2 marks]2024 paper

    In a moderately asymmetrical distribution, the mode and mean are 32 and 35 respectively. Calculate the median.

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    Calculation of Median from Mode and Mean:

    Given:

    • Mode=32\text{Mode} = 32
    • Mean=35\text{Mean} = 35

    Empirical Formula:

    Mode=3Median−2Mean\text{Mode} = 3\text{Median} - 2\text{Mean}

    Calculation:

    32=3Median−2(35)32 = 3\text{Median} - 2(35)
    32=3Median−7032 = 3\text{Median} - 70
    3Median=32+70=1023\text{Median} = 32 + 70 = 102
    Median=1023=34\text{Median} = \frac{102}{3} = \mathbf{34}

    Final Answer: The median of the distribution is 34.

  19. Asked on 2024 Exam[2 marks]2024 paper

    Calculate the Pearson’s Coefficient of skewness when mean, mode and standard deviation are 25, 20 and 10 respectively.

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    Pearson’s Coefficient of Skewness:

    Given:

    • Mean=25\text{Mean} = 25
    • Mode=20\text{Mode} = 20
    • Standard Deviation (σ)=10\text{Standard Deviation } (\sigma) = 10

    Formula:

    Skp=Mean−ModeσSk_p = \frac{\text{Mean} - \text{Mode}}{\sigma}

    Calculation:

    Skp=25−2010=510=+0.5Sk_p = \frac{25 - 20}{10} = \frac{5}{10} = \mathbf{+0.5}

    Final Answer: Pearson’s coefficient of skewness is +0.5 (moderately positively skewed).

  20. Asked on 2024 Exam[2 marks]2024 paper

    If first quartile and third quartile of a distribution are 28 and 52 and their 90th and 10th percentiles are 61 and 17 respectively then, find the value of kurtosis.

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    Calculation of Percentile Coefficient of Kurtosis:

    Given:

    • Q1=28Q_1 = 28, Q3=52Q_3 = 52
    • P90=61P_{90} = 61, P10=17P_{10} = 17

    Formula:

    K=QDP90−P10=Q3−Q12P90−P10K = \frac{QD}{P_{90} - P_{10}} = \frac{\frac{Q_3 - Q_1}{2}}{P_{90} - P_{10}}

    Calculation:

    QD=52−282=242=12QD = \frac{52 - 28}{2} = \frac{24}{2} = 12
    P90−P10=61−17=44P_{90} - P_{10} = 61 - 17 = 44
    K=1244=311≈0.2727K = \frac{12}{44} = \frac{3}{11} \approx \mathbf{0.2727}

    Final Answer: The coefficient of kurtosis is 0.2727 (since 0.2727>0.2630.2727 > 0.263, it is leptokurtic).

  21. Asked on 2024 Exam[6 marks]2024 paper

    The following table represents the weekly expenditure of 100 families.

    Expenditure 0-20 20-40 40-60 60-80 80-100
    No. of Families 14 ? 27 ? 15

    If the mean value is 48 find the missing frequencies.

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    Finding Missing Frequencies When Mean = 48:

    Given Data:

    • Total families (NN) = 100100
    • Mean expenditure (Xˉ\bar{X}) = 4848

    Let the missing frequency of class 20–40 be f1f_1 and class 60–80 be f2f_2.

    Expenditure Mid-point (mm) Frequency (ff) fmfm
    0 – 20 10 14 140
    20 – 40 30 f1f_1 30f130f_1
    40 – 60 50 27 1,350
    60 – 80 70 f2f_2 70f270f_2
    80 – 100 90 15 1,350
    Total — N=100N = 100 ∑fm=2,840+30f1+70f2\sum fm = 2,840 + 30f_1 + 70f_2

    Step 1: Total Frequency Equation

    14+f1+27+f2+15=10014 + f_1 + 27 + f_2 + 15 = 100
    f1+f2+56=100  ⟹  f1+f2=44— (1)f_1 + f_2 + 56 = 100 \implies f_1 + f_2 = 44 \quad \text{--- (1)}

    Step 2: Mean Equation

    Xˉ=∑fmN  ⟹  48=2840+30f1+70f2100\bar{X} = \frac{\sum fm}{N} \implies 48 = \frac{2840 + 30f_1 + 70f_2}{100}
    4,800=2,840+30f1+70f24,800 = 2,840 + 30f_1 + 70f_2
    30f1+70f2=1,96030f_1 + 70f_2 = 1,960

    Divide by 10:

    3f1+7f2=196— (2)3f_1 + 7f_2 = 196 \quad \text{--- (2)}


    Step 3: Solve Simultaneously

    Multiply Equation (1) by 3:

    3f1+3f2=132— (3)3f_1 + 3f_2 = 132 \quad \text{--- (3)}

    Subtract Equation (3) from Equation (2):

    (3f1+7f2)−(3f1+3f2)=196−132(3f_1 + 7f_2) - (3f_1 + 3f_2) = 196 - 132
    4f2=64  ⟹  f2=644=164f_2 = 64 \implies f_2 = \frac{64}{4} = \mathbf{16}

    Substitute f2=16f_2 = 16 into Equation (1):

    f1+16=44  ⟹  f1=44−16=28f_1 + 16 = 44 \implies f_1 = 44 - 16 = \mathbf{28}

    Final Answer: The missing frequencies are f1=28f_1 = 28 (for class 20–40) and f2=16f_2 = 16 (for class 60–80).

  22. Asked on 2024 Exam[6 marks]2024 paper

    Calculate coefficient of quartile deviation from the following distribution of expenditure of one thousand households of Pokhara city.

    Expenditure (Rs.'00) No. of households
    30-50 54
    50-70 100
    70-90 140
    90-110 300
    110-130 230
    130-150 125
    Above 150 51
    View model answerHide model answer

    Coefficient of Quartile Deviation of Household Expenditure:

    Cumulative Frequency Table:

    Expenditure (Rs '00) Households (ff) Cumulative Frequency (cfcf)
    30 – 50 54 54
    50 – 70 100 154
    70 – 90 140 294
    90 – 110 300 594
    110 – 130 230 824
    130 – 150 125 949
    Above 150 51 1000
    Total N=1000N = 1000 —

    Step 1: Lower Quartile (Q1Q_1)

    Position of Q1=N4=10004=250th  ⟹  Class: 70 – 90\text{Position of } Q_1 = \frac{N}{4} = \frac{1000}{4} = 250^{\text{th}} \implies \text{Class: 70 – 90}
    Q1=70+(250−154140)×20=70+(96140)×20=70+13.71=83.71Q_1 = 70 + \left(\frac{250 - 154}{140}\right) \times 20 = 70 + \left(\frac{96}{140}\right) \times 20 = 70 + 13.71 = \mathbf{83.71}

    Step 2: Upper Quartile (Q3Q_3)

    Position of Q3=3N4=30004=750th  ⟹  Class: 110 – 130\text{Position of } Q_3 = \frac{3N}{4} = \frac{3000}{4} = 750^{\text{th}} \implies \text{Class: 110 – 130}
    Q3=110+(750−594230)×20=110+(156230)×20=110+13.57=123.57Q_3 = 110 + \left(\frac{750 - 594}{230}\right) \times 20 = 110 + \left(\frac{156}{230}\right) \times 20 = 110 + 13.57 = \mathbf{123.57}

    Step 3: Coefficient of Quartile Deviation

    Coefficient of QD=Q3−Q1Q3+Q1=123.57−83.71123.57+83.71=39.86207.28≈0.1923\text{Coefficient of } QD = \frac{Q_3 - Q_1}{Q_3 + Q_1} = \frac{123.57 - 83.71}{123.57 + 83.71} = \frac{39.86}{207.28} \approx \mathbf{0.1923}

    Final Answer: The coefficient of quartile deviation is 0.1923 (or 19.23%).

  23. Asked on 2024 Exam[6 marks]2024 paper

    The mark distribution of 104 students are given below.

    Marks 0 - 10 10 - 20 20 - 30 30 - 40 40 - 50 50 - 60 60 - 70
    No. of Students 7 8 13 29 35 9 3

    Find the lowest marks of the top 10% of the students.

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    Lowest Marks of the Top 10% of Students (P90P_{90}):

    Concept:

    The cutoff score separating the top 10% of students is the 90th90^{\text{th}} Percentile (P90P_{90}).


    Cumulative Frequency Table:

    Marks Frequency (ff) Cumulative Frequency (cfcf)
    0 – 10 7 7
    10 – 20 8 15
    20 – 30 13 28
    30 – 40 29 57
    40 – 50 35 92
    50 – 60 9 101
    60 – 70 3 104
    Total N=104N = 104 —

    Step 1: Position of P90P_{90}Position=90×N100=90×104100=93.6th item\text{Position} = \frac{90 \times N}{100} = \frac{90 \times 104}{100} = 93.6^{\text{th}} \text{ item}$

    The cumulative frequency just exceeding 93.6 is 101, corresponding to class 50 – 60.


    Step 2: Percentile Interpolation Formula

    P90=L+(90N100−cff)×hP_{90} = L + \left(\frac{\frac{90N}{100} - cf}{f}\right) \times h

    Where L=50L = 50, cf=92cf = 92, f=9f = 9, h=10h = 10:

    P90=50+(93.6−929)×10=50+(1.69)×10=50+1.78=51.78P_{90} = 50 + \left(\frac{93.6 - 92}{9}\right) \times 10 = 50 + \left(\frac{1.6}{9}\right) \times 10 = 50 + 1.78 = \mathbf{51.78}

    Final Answer: The lowest marks of the top 10% of students is 51.78 marks.

  24. Asked on 2024 Exam[10 marks]2024 paper

    Calculate the percentile coefficient of kurtosis from the income distribution of sixty-two randomly selected employees of Nepal Bank Limited. Also interpret the result.

    Income (Rs '000) 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 Total
    No. of employees 7 10 20 18 7 62
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    Percentile Coefficient of Kurtosis for Nepal Bank Limited Employees:

    Cumulative Frequency Table:

    Income (Rs '000) Employees (ff) Cumulative Frequency (cfcf)
    20 – 30 7 7
    30 – 40 10 17
    40 – 50 20 37
    50 – 60 18 55
    60 – 70 7 62
    Total N=62N = 62 —

    Step 1: Calculate Q1Q_1 and Q3Q_3

    • Q1Q_1 position: N4=624=15.5th  ⟹  \frac{N}{4} = \frac{62}{4} = 15.5^{\text{th}} \implies Class 30 – 40
      Q1=30+(15.5−710)×10=30+8.5=38.5Q_1 = 30 + \left(\frac{15.5 - 7}{10}\right) \times 10 = 30 + 8.5 = \mathbf{38.5}
    • Q3Q_3 position: 3N4=1864=46.5th  ⟹  \frac{3N}{4} = \frac{186}{4} = 46.5^{\text{th}} \implies Class 50 – 60
      Q3=50+(46.5−3718)×10=50+(9.518)×10=50+5.28=55.28Q_3 = 50 + \left(\frac{46.5 - 37}{18}\right) \times 10 = 50 + \left(\frac{9.5}{18}\right) \times 10 = 50 + 5.28 = \mathbf{55.28}
    • Semi-Interquartile Range (QDQD):
      QD=Q3−Q12=55.28−38.52=16.782=8.39QD = \frac{Q_3 - Q_1}{2} = \frac{55.28 - 38.5}{2} = \frac{16.78}{2} = \mathbf{8.39}

    Step 2: Calculate P10P_{10} and P90P_{90}

    • P10P_{10} position: 10×62100=6.2th  ⟹  \frac{10 \times 62}{100} = 6.2^{\text{th}} \implies Class 20 – 30
      P10=20+(6.2−07)×10=20+8.86=28.86P_{10} = 20 + \left(\frac{6.2 - 0}{7}\right) \times 10 = 20 + 8.86 = \mathbf{28.86}
    • P90P_{90} position: 90×62100=55.8th  ⟹  \frac{90 \times 62}{100} = 55.8^{\text{th}} \implies Class 60 – 70
      P90=60+(55.8−557)×10=60+1.14=61.14P_{90} = 60 + \left(\frac{55.8 - 55}{7}\right) \times 10 = 60 + 1.14 = \mathbf{61.14}

    Step 3: Compute Kurtosis (KK)

    K=QDP90−P10=8.3961.14−28.86=8.3932.28≈0.2599K = \frac{QD}{P_{90} - P_{10}} = \frac{8.39}{61.14 - 28.86} = \frac{8.39}{32.28} \approx \mathbf{0.2599}

    Interpretation:

    • The standard normal (mesokurtic) value is K=0.263K = 0.263.
    • Since K=0.2599<0.263K = 0.2599 < 0.263, the distribution is slightly platykurtic, indicating a slightly flatter peak with thinner tails compared to a normal distribution.
  25. Asked on 2024 Exam[10 marks]2024 paper

    The running capacity of two horses is given below, state which is more consistent and why?

    Horse A 250 255 280 290 295 300
    Horse B 280 282 290 295 298 295
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    Consistency Comparison of Two Horses Using Coefficient of Variation (CV):

    Data (n=6n = 6 observations each):

    • Horse A: [250,255,280,290,295,300][250, 255, 280, 290, 295, 300]
    • Horse B: [280,282,290,295,298,295][280, 282, 290, 295, 298, 295]

    Step 1: Horse A Calculations

    ∑XA=250+255+280+290+295+300=1,670\sum X_A = 250 + 255 + 280 + 290 + 295 + 300 = 1,670
    XˉA=16706=278.33\bar{X}_A = \frac{1670}{6} = \mathbf{278.33}

    Deviations squared ∑(XA−XˉA)2\sum (X_A - \bar{X}_A)^2:

    (250−278.33)2+⋯+(300−278.33)2=802.78+544.44+2.78+136.11+277.78+469.44=2,233.33(250 - 278.33)^2 + \dots + (300 - 278.33)^2 = 802.78 + 544.44 + 2.78 + 136.11 + 277.78 + 469.44 = 2,233.33

    σA=2233.336=372.22=19.29\sigma_A = \sqrt{\frac{2233.33}{6}} = \sqrt{372.22} = \mathbf{19.29}
    CVA=σAXˉA×100=19.29278.33×100=6.93%CV_A = \frac{\sigma_A}{\bar{X}_A} \times 100 = \frac{19.29}{278.33} \times 100 = \mathbf{6.93\%}

    Step 2: Horse B Calculations

    ∑XB=280+282+290+295+298+295=1,740\sum X_B = 280 + 282 + 290 + 295 + 298 + 295 = 1,740
    XˉB=17406=290.00\bar{X}_B = \frac{1740}{6} = \mathbf{290.00}

    Deviations squared ∑(XB−XˉB)2\sum (X_B - \bar{X}_B)^2:

    (−10)2+(−8)2+(0)2+(5)2+(8)2+(5)2=100+64+0+25+64+25=278.00(-10)^2 + (-8)^2 + (0)^2 + (5)^2 + (8)^2 + (5)^2 = 100 + 64 + 0 + 25 + 64 + 25 = 278.00

    σB=2786=46.33=6.81\sigma_B = \sqrt{\frac{278}{6}} = \sqrt{46.33} = \mathbf{6.81}
    CVB=σBXˉB×100=6.81290×100=2.35%CV_B = \frac{\sigma_B}{\bar{X}_B} \times 100 = \frac{6.81}{290} \times 100 = \mathbf{2.35\%}

    Conclusion:

    • A lower Coefficient of Variation signifies greater stability and consistency.
    • Since CVB(2.35%)<CVA(6.93%)CV_B (2.35\%) < CV_A (6.93\%), Horse B is significantly more consistent in its running performance than Horse A.
  26. Asked on 2026 Exam[2 marks]2026 paper

    The values of lower and upper quartiles are 40 and 70 respectively, then calculate coefficient of quartile deviation.

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    Coefficient of Quartile Deviation:

    Given:

    • Lower Quartile (Q1Q_1) = 4040
    • Upper Quartile (Q3Q_3) = 7070

    Formula:

    Coefficient of QD=Q3−Q1Q3+Q1\text{Coefficient of } QD = \frac{Q_3 - Q_1}{Q_3 + Q_1}

    Calculation:

    Coefficient of QD=70−4070+40=30110=311≈0.2727(or 27.27%)\text{Coefficient of } QD = \frac{70 - 40}{70 + 40} = \frac{30}{110} = \frac{3}{11} \approx \mathbf{0.2727} \quad (\text{or } 27.27\%)

    Final Answer: The coefficient of quartile deviation is 0.2727.

  27. Asked on 2026 Exam[2 marks]2026 paper

    The mean and coefficient of variation of a certain data are 20 and 30% respectively. Calculate standard deviation.

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    Calculation of Standard Deviation (σ\sigma):

    Given:

    • Mean (Xˉ)=20\text{Mean } (\bar{X}) = 20
    • Coefficient of Variation (CV)=30%\text{Coefficient of Variation } (CV) = 30\%

    Formula:

    CV=σXˉ×100CV = \frac{\sigma}{\bar{X}} \times 100

    Calculation:

    30=σ20×10030 = \frac{\sigma}{20} \times 100
    30=5σ  ⟹  σ=305=630 = 5\sigma \implies \sigma = \frac{30}{5} = \mathbf{6}

    Final Answer: The standard deviation is 6.

  28. Asked on 2026 Exam[2 marks]2026 paper

    Give that quartile deviation = 20, 10th percentile = 30 and 90th percentile = 90, find the coefficient of kurtosis.

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    Calculation of Coefficient of Kurtosis (KK):

    Given:

    • Quartile Deviation (QDQD) = 2020
    • 10th10^{\text{th}} Percentile (P10P_{10}) = 3030
    • 90th90^{\text{th}} Percentile (P90P_{90}) = 9090

    Formula:

    K=QDP90−P10K = \frac{QD}{P_{90} - P_{10}}

    Calculation:

    K=2090−30=2060=13≈0.3333K = \frac{20}{90 - 30} = \frac{20}{60} = \frac{1}{3} \approx \mathbf{0.3333}

    Final Answer: The coefficient of kurtosis is 0.3333 (since 0.3333>0.2630.3333 > 0.263, the distribution is leptokurtic).

  29. Asked on 2026 Exam[2 marks]2026 paper

    For a moderately asymmetrical distribution, if the values of mean and median are 30 and 28, find the value of mode.

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    Calculation of Mode from Empirical Relationship:

    Given:

    • Mean=30\text{Mean} = 30
    • Median=28\text{Median} = 28

    Empirical Formula:

    Mode=3Median−2Mean\text{Mode} = 3\text{Median} - 2\text{Mean}

    Calculation:

    Mode=3(28)−2(30)=84−60=24\text{Mode} = 3(28) - 2(30) = 84 - 60 = \mathbf{24}

    Final Answer: The value of the mode is 24.

  30. Asked on 2026 Exam[6 marks]2026 paper

    The mean of a set of 100 observations were found to be 40. On checking it was found that two observations, which were wrongly taken as 30 and 72 instead of 3 and 27. Calculate the corrected mean.

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    Calculation of Corrected Mean:

    Given Data:

    • Number of observations (nn) = 100100
    • Incorrect mean (Xˉ\bar{X}) = 4040
    • Incorrect values included: 3030 and 7272
    • Correct values to include: 33 and 2727

    Step 1: Compute Incorrect Sum (∑X\sum X)

    Incorrect ∑X=n×Xˉ=100×40=4,000\text{Incorrect } \sum X = n \times \bar{X} = 100 \times 40 = 4,000

    Step 2: Compute Corrected Sum

    Correct ∑X=Incorrect ∑X−(Wrong Values)+(Correct Values)\text{Correct } \sum X = \text{Incorrect } \sum X - (\text{Wrong Values}) + (\text{Correct Values})
    Correct ∑X=4000−(30+72)+(3+27)\text{Correct } \sum X = 4000 - (30 + 72) + (3 + 27)
    Correct ∑X=4000−102+30=3,928\text{Correct } \sum X = 4000 - 102 + 30 = \mathbf{3,928}

    Step 3: Calculate Corrected Mean

    Correct Mean (Xˉcorr)=Correct ∑Xn=3928100=39.28\text{Correct Mean } (\bar{X}_{\text{corr}}) = \frac{\text{Correct } \sum X}{n} = \frac{3928}{100} = \mathbf{39.28}

    Final Answer: The corrected mean of the observations is 39.28.

  31. Asked on 2026 Exam[6 marks]2026 paper

    Sample of 50 mobile of two brands Samsung and Apple are taken and average running life (years) of each recorded as shown below.

    Samsung Apple
    Average life in years 11 12
    variance 25 36

    Which of the two brands show greater uniformity in life?

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    Comparison of Uniformity in Running Life: Samsung vs. Apple:

    Given Data (n=50n = 50 for both brands):

    • Samsung:
      • Mean life (Xˉ1\bar{X}_1) = 11 years11 \text{ years}
      • Variance (σ12\sigma_1^2) = 25  ⟹  σ1=25=5 years25 \implies \sigma_1 = \sqrt{25} = 5 \text{ years}
    • Apple:
      • Mean life (Xˉ2\bar{X}_2) = 12 years12 \text{ years}
      • Variance (σ22\sigma_2^2) = 36  ⟹  σ2=36=6 years36 \implies \sigma_2 = \sqrt{36} = 6 \text{ years}

    Step 1: Compute Coefficient of Variation (CV)

    CV=σXˉ×100CV = \frac{\sigma}{\bar{X}} \times 100
    • For Samsung:

      CV1=511×100=45.45%CV_1 = \frac{5}{11} \times 100 = \mathbf{45.45\%}

    • For Apple:

      CV2=612×100=50.00%CV_2 = \frac{6}{12} \times 100 = \mathbf{50.00\%}


    Conclusion:

    • A lower Coefficient of Variation indicates greater consistency, stability, and uniformity.
    • Since CVSamsung(45.45%)<CVApple(50.00%)CV_{\text{Samsung}} (45.45\%) < CV_{\text{Apple}} (50.00\%), Samsung shows greater uniformity in running life compared to Apple.
  32. Asked on 2026 Exam[6 marks]2026 paper

    Calculate an appropriate measure of central tendency from the following distribution and support for your choice of measure.

    Monthly income (in Rs.) No. of Families
    Below 1000 50
    1000-1999 500
    2000-2999 555
    3000-3999 100
    4000-4999 30
    5000 & above 15
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    Appropriate Measure of Central Tendency for Open-Ended Income:

    Choice of Measure and Support:

    • The given income distribution features open-ended terminal classes (“Below 1000” and “5000 & above”).
    • The arithmetic mean cannot be determined without arbitrary assumptions about class limits. The Median is the most appropriate measure because it is a positional average independent of extreme or undefined boundary values.

    Cumulative Frequency Table:

    (Using continuous class boundaries with correction factor 0.50.5)

    Monthly Income (Rs) Families (ff) Cumulative Frequency (cfcf)
    Below 999.5 50 50
    999.5 – 1999.5 500 550
    1999.5 – 2999.5 555 1,105
    2999.5 – 3999.5 100 1,205
    3999.5 – 4999.5 30 1,235
    4999.5 & above 15 1,250
    Total N=1,250N = 1,250 —

    Step 1: Locate Median Class

    Position of Median=N2=12502=625th item\text{Position of Median} = \frac{N}{2} = \frac{1250}{2} = 625^{\text{th}} \text{ item}

    The cumulative frequency just greater than 625 is 1,105, which falls in class 1999.5 – 2999.5.


    Step 2: Compute Median

    Md=L+(N2−cff)×hM_d = L + \left(\frac{\frac{N}{2} - cf}{f}\right) \times h

    Where L=1999.5L = 1999.5, cf=550cf = 550, f=555f = 555, h=1000h = 1000:

    Md=1999.5+(625−550555)×1000=1999.5+(75555)×1000=1999.5+135.14=Rs  2,134.64M_d = 1999.5 + \left(\frac{625 - 550}{555}\right) \times 1000 = 1999.5 + \left(\frac{75}{555}\right) \times 1000 = 1999.5 + 135.14 = \mathbf{Rs \; 2,134.64}

    Final Answer: The appropriate measure is the Median, and its value is Rs 2,134.64.

  33. Asked on 2026 Exam[6 marks]2026 paper

    Calculate the five number summary from the following data and comment on the shape of the distribution. 39, 26, 15, 8, 70, 11, 45, 60, 20, 32, 52

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    Five-Number Summary and Distribution Shape:

    Step 1: Arrange Data in Ascending Order

    Given data (n=11n = 11): 39, 26, 15, 8, 70, 11, 45, 60, 20, 32, 52

    Sorted order: 8, 11, 15, 20, 26, 32, 39, 45, 52, 60, 70


    Step 2: Calculate Five-Number Summary

    1. Minimum (MinMin): 8
    2. First Quartile (Q1Q_1):
      Position=(11+14)th=3rd value=15\text{Position} = \left(\frac{11 + 1}{4}\right)^{\text{th}} = 3^{\text{rd}} \text{ value} = \mathbf{15}
    3. Median (Q2Q_2):
      Position=(11+12)th=6th value=32\text{Position} = \left(\frac{11 + 1}{2}\right)^{\text{th}} = 6^{\text{th}} \text{ value} = \mathbf{32}
    4. Third Quartile (Q3Q_3):
      Position=(3×124)th=9th value=52\text{Position} = \left(\frac{3 \times 12}{4}\right)^{\text{th}} = 9^{\text{th}} \text{ value} = \mathbf{52}
    5. Maximum (MaxMax): 70

    Five-Number Summary: [8,15,32,52,70][8, 15, 32, 52, 70]


    Step 3: Comment on the Shape of the Distribution

    • Left quartile distance: Q2−Q1=32−15=17Q_2 - Q_1 = 32 - 15 = 17
    • Right quartile distance: Q3−Q2=52−32=20Q_3 - Q_2 = 52 - 32 = 20
    • Bowley’s Skewness:
      SkB=Q3+Q1−2Q2Q3−Q1=52+15−6452−15=337≈+0.081Sk_B = \frac{Q_3 + Q_1 - 2Q_2}{Q_3 - Q_1} = \frac{52 + 15 - 64}{52 - 15} = \frac{3}{37} \approx \mathbf{+0.081}

    Conclusion: Since (Q3−Q2)>(Q2−Q1)(Q_3 - Q_2) > (Q_2 - Q_1) (20>1720 > 17) and SkB>0Sk_B > 0, the distribution exhibits a slight positive skewness (skewed to the right).

  34. Asked on 2026 Exam[10 marks]2026 paper

    From the following income distribution:

    Income (Rs '000) 0 - 4 5 - 9 10 - 14 15 - 19 20 - 24
    No of persons 160 200 430 140 70

    Compute lowest income of richest 10% of the people.

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    Lowest Income of the Richest 10% of People (P90P_{90}):

    Concept:

    The cutoff separating the lowest income of the richest 10% corresponds to the 90th90^{\text{th}} Percentile (P90P_{90}).


    Cumulative Frequency Table:

    (Converted to continuous class boundaries)

    Income (Rs '000) True Boundaries Persons (ff) Cumulative Frequency (cfcf)
    0 – 4 0.0 – 4.5 160 160
    5 – 9 4.5 – 9.5 200 360
    10 – 14 9.5 – 14.5 430 790
    15 – 19 14.5 – 19.5 140 930
    20 – 24 19.5 – 24.5 70 1000
    Total — N=1000N = 1000 —

    Step 1: Locate P90P_{90} Class

    Position=90×N100=90×1000100=900th item\text{Position} = \frac{90 \times N}{100} = \frac{90 \times 1000}{100} = 900^{\text{th}} \text{ item}

    The cumulative frequency exceeding 900 is 930, so the P90P_{90} Class is 14.5 – 19.5.


    Step 2: Percentile Interpolation Formula

    P90=L+(90N100−cff)×hP_{90} = L + \left(\frac{\frac{90N}{100} - cf}{f}\right) \times h

    Where:

    • L=14.5L = 14.5
    • cf=790cf = 790
    • f=140f = 140
    • h=5h = 5P90=14.5+(900−790140)×5=14.5+(110140)×5=14.5+3.9286=18.43 (in ’000 Rs)P_{90} = 14.5 + \left(\frac{900 - 790}{140}\right) \times 5 = 14.5 + \left(\frac{110}{140}\right) \times 5 = 14.5 + 3.9286 = \mathbf{18.43 \text{ (in '000 Rs)}}$

    Final Answer: The lowest income of the richest 10% of the people is Rs 18,429 (or 18.43 thousand Rs).

  35. Asked on 2026 Exam[10 marks]2026 paper

    Calculate Karl Pearson’s coefficient of skewness from the following income distribution of hundred families.

    Income (Rs.'00) 0 - 20 20 - 40 40 - 60 60 - 80 80 - 100
    No. of families 13 21 27 23 16
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    Karl Pearson’s Coefficient of Skewness for 100 Families:

    Calculation Table:

    Income (Rs '00) Mid-point (mm) Families (ff) d=m−5020d = \frac{m - 50}{20} fdfd fd2fd^2
    0 – 20 10 13 -2 -26 52
    20 – 40 30 21 -1 -21 21
    40 – 60 50 27 0 0 0
    60 – 80 70 23 1 23 23
    80 – 100 90 16 2 32 64
    Total — N=100N = 100 — ∑fd=8\sum fd = 8 ∑fd2=160\sum fd^2 = 160

    Step 1: Mean (Xˉ\bar{X})

    Xˉ=A+(∑fdN)×h=50+(8100)×20=50+1.6=51.60 (in ’00 Rs)\bar{X} = A + \left(\frac{\sum fd}{N}\right) \times h = 50 + \left(\frac{8}{100}\right) \times 20 = 50 + 1.6 = \mathbf{51.60 \text{ (in '00 Rs)}}

    Step 2: Mode (MoM_o)

    Modal class is 40 – 60 (f1=27,f0=21,f2=23,L=40,h=20f_1 = 27, f_0 = 21, f_2 = 23, L = 40, h = 20):

    Mo=40+[27−212(27)−21−23]×20=40+(654−44)×20=40+(610)×20=40+12=52.00M_o = 40 + \left[\frac{27 - 21}{2(27) - 21 - 23}\right] \times 20 = 40 + \left(\frac{6}{54 - 44}\right) \times 20 = 40 + \left(\frac{6}{10}\right) \times 20 = 40 + 12 = \mathbf{52.00}


    Step 3: Standard Deviation (σ\sigma)

    σ=h×∑fd2N−(∑fdN)2=20×160100−(8100)2=20×1.60−0.0064=20×1.5936=20×1.2624=25.25\sigma = h \times \sqrt{\frac{\sum fd^2}{N} - \left(\frac{\sum fd}{N}\right)^2} = 20 \times \sqrt{\frac{160}{100} - \left(\frac{8}{100}\right)^2} = 20 \times \sqrt{1.60 - 0.0064} = 20 \times \sqrt{1.5936} = 20 \times 1.2624 = \mathbf{25.25}

    Step 4: Karl Pearson’s Skewness (SkpSk_p)

    Skp=Xˉ−Moσ=51.60−52.0025.25=−0.4025.25≈−0.0158Sk_p = \frac{\bar{X} - M_o}{\sigma} = \frac{51.60 - 52.00}{25.25} = \frac{-0.40}{25.25} \approx \mathbf{-0.0158}

    Interpretation: The distribution has a very slight negative skewness (−0.0158-0.0158), indicating it is nearly symmetrical.