Model paper

Dean's Office Official Model Question Paper

ACS 208 · Accounting for Financial Analysis

Programme
BBM
Academic year
Semester 8
Paper type
Official Model Question
Sitting
Dean's Office Blueprint
Full marks
60
Duration
180 minutes

Tribhuvan University

Faculty of Management

Office of the Dean

Official Model Question Paper / Dean's Office Blueprint

Course: ACS 208 · Accounting for Financial Analysis

Level: Bachelor of Business Management (BBM) · Semester 8

Full Marks: 60

Time: 3 hrs.

Candidates are required to give their answers in their own words as far as practicable. Figures in the margin indicate full marks.

Group A

Brief Answer Questions. Attempt ALL questions. (5 × 2 = 10)

[5*2=10]
  1. Define Financial Statement Analysis and mention two analytical techniques.

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    Financial Statement Analysis

    Financial statement analysis is the critical evaluation and interpretation of an enterprise’s financial statements to assess its profitability, liquidity, solvency, and operational efficiency.

    Two Techniques: Ratio Analysis and Cash Flow Analysis.

  2. What is the DuPont Three-Factor ROE decomposition?

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    DuPont Three-Factor Decomposition

    ROE=(Net IncomeSales)×(SalesTotal Assets)×(Total AssetsEquity)\text{ROE} = \left( \frac{\text{Net Income}}{\text{Sales}} \right) \times \left( \frac{\text{Sales}}{\text{Total Assets}} \right) \times \left( \frac{\text{Total Assets}}{\text{Equity}} \right)
    ROE=Net Profit Margin×Asset Turnover×Equity Multiplier (Financial Leverage)\text{ROE} = \text{Net Profit Margin} \times \text{Asset Turnover} \times \text{Equity Multiplier (Financial Leverage)}
  3. Distinguish between Operating Cash Flow (OCF) and Free Cash Flow to Firm (FCFF).

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    OCF vs. FCFF

    • Operating Cash Flow (OCF): Cash generated from core operating business activities before capital investments.
    • Free Cash Flow to Firm (FCFF): Cash generated from operations minus capital expenditures (CapEx):
      FCFF=OCFCapital Expenditures (CapEx)\text{FCFF} = \text{OCF} - \text{Capital Expenditures (CapEx)}
      It represents cash available to all providers of capital (debt and equity).
  4. Define Economic Value Added (EVA).

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    Economic Value Added (EVA)

    EVA=NOPAT(Invested Capital×WACC)\text{EVA} = \text{NOPAT} - (\text{Invested Capital} \times \text{WACC})

    Where NOPAT is Net Operating Profit After Tax and WACC is Weighted Average Cost of Capital. A positive EVA indicates the firm generated wealth above its total cost of capital.

  5. What is the Altman Z-Score and what does it predict?

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    Altman Z-Score

    The Altman Z-Score is a multivariate financial formula combining five financial ratios to predict the probability that a manufacturing company will enter bankruptcy within two years (Z<1.81Z < 1.81 denotes high distress zone).

Group B

Short Answer Questions. Attempt any THREE questions. (3 × 10 = 30)

[3*10=30]
  1. The following financial information belongs to Surya Industrial Corp.:

    • Sales: Rs 20,000,000
    • Net Profit After Tax: Rs 1,600,000
    • Total Assets: Rs 16,000,000
    • Total Equity Capital: Rs 8,000,000

    Required: a. Calculate the Return on Equity (ROE). b. Perform the DuPont Three-Factor Decomposition to break down ROE into Net Profit Margin, Asset Turnover, and Financial Leverage (Equity Multiplier). c. Interpret how management can improve ROE.

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    DuPont ROE Analysis for Surya Industrial Corp.

    a. Direct ROE Computation

    ROE=Net Profit After TaxTotal Equity×100=1,600,0008,000,000×100=20.0%\text{ROE} = \frac{\text{Net Profit After Tax}}{\text{Total Equity}} \times 100 = \frac{1{,}600{,}000}{8{,}000{,}000} \times 100 = \mathbf{20.0\%}

    b. DuPont Three-Factor Decomposition

    ROE=Net Profit Margin (NPM)×Total Asset Turnover (TAT)×Equity Multiplier (EM)\text{ROE} = \text{Net Profit Margin (NPM)} \times \text{Total Asset Turnover (TAT)} \times \text{Equity Multiplier (EM)}
    1. Net Profit Margin (Profitability):
      NPM=Net IncomeSales=1,600,00020,000,000=8.0%\text{NPM} = \frac{\text{Net Income}}{\text{Sales}} = \frac{1{,}600{,}000}{20{,}000{,}000} = \mathbf{8.0\%}
    2. Total Asset Turnover (Efficiency):
      TAT=SalesTotal Assets=20,000,00016,000,000=1.25×\text{TAT} = \frac{\text{Sales}}{\text{Total Assets}} = \frac{20{,}000{,}000}{16{,}000{,}000} = \mathbf{1.25 \times}
    3. Equity Multiplier (Financial Leverage):
      EM=Total AssetsTotal Equity=16,000,0008,000,000=2.00×\text{EM} = \frac{\text{Total Assets}}{\text{Total Equity}} = \frac{16{,}000{,}000}{8{,}000{,}000} = \mathbf{2.00 \times}

    Verification:

    ROE=0.08×1.25×2.00=0.20=20.0%\text{ROE} = 0.08 \times 1.25 \times 2.00 = 0.20 = \mathbf{20.0\%}

    c. Managerial Interpretation

    • The 20% ROE is driven by healthy profit margins (8%) and moderate leverage (assets are twice equity).
    • Improvement Pathways: Management can boost ROE without taking on hazardous debt leverage by improving operational efficiency—accelerating asset turnover from 1.25x to 1.50x through leaner inventory and faster receivables collection.
  2. Explain the Cash Conversion Cycle (CCC). Compute the CCC for a company with: Inventory = Rs 3,000,000; Debtors = Rs 2,500,000; Creditors = Rs 1,800,000; Annual Sales = Rs 18,000,000; and Cost of Goods Sold = Rs 12,000,000 (Assume 360 days in a year).

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    Cash Conversion Cycle (CCC) Computation

    CCC=Days Inventory Outstanding (DIO)+Days Sales Outstanding (DSO)Days Payable Outstanding (DPO)\text{CCC} = \text{Days Inventory Outstanding (DIO)} + \text{Days Sales Outstanding (DSO)} - \text{Days Payable Outstanding (DPO)}

    1. Intermediate Computations

    • Days Inventory Outstanding (DIO):
      DIO=(InventoryCOGS)×360=(3,000,00012,000,000)×360=90 Days\text{DIO} = \left( \frac{\text{Inventory}}{\text{COGS}} \right) \times 360 = \left( \frac{3{,}000{,}000}{12{,}000{,}000} \right) \times 360 = \mathbf{90 \text{ Days}}
    • Days Sales Outstanding (DSO):
      DSO=(DebtorsSales)×360=(2,500,00018,000,000)×360=50 Days\text{DSO} = \left( \frac{\text{Debtors}}{\text{Sales}} \right) \times 360 = \left( \frac{2{,}500{,}000}{18{,}000{,}000} \right) \times 360 = \mathbf{50 \text{ Days}}
    • Days Payable Outstanding (DPO):
      DPO=(CreditorsCOGS)×360=(1,800,00012,000,000)×360=54 Days\text{DPO} = \left( \frac{\text{Creditors}}{\text{COGS}} \right) \times 360 = \left( \frac{1{,}800{,}000}{12{,}000{,}000} \right) \times 360 = \mathbf{54 \text{ Days}}

    2. Cash Conversion Cycle

    CCC=90+5054=86 Days\text{CCC} = 90 + 50 - 54 = \mathbf{86 \text{ Days}}
    • Interpretation: The company requires 86 days of working capital financing from the day it pays for raw materials until it collects cash from final customers.
  3. Explain Financial Distress Prediction using the Edward Altman Z-Score model for manufacturing firms. Detail the five constituent financial ratios.

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    Altman Z-Score Model for Manufacturing Firms

    Z=1.2X1+1.4X2+3.3X3+0.6X4+1.0X5Z = 1.2 X_1 + 1.4 X_2 + 3.3 X_3 + 0.6 X_4 + 1.0 X_5

    Constituent Ratios:

    1. X1=Working CapitalTotal AssetsX_1 = \frac{\text{Working Capital}}{\text{Total Assets}}: Measures net short-term balance sheet liquidity relative to enterprise size.
    2. X2=Retained EarningsTotal AssetsX_2 = \frac{\text{Retained Earnings}}{\text{Total Assets}}: Measures cumulative historical profitability and company age.
    3. X3=EBITTotal AssetsX_3 = \frac{\text{EBIT}}{\text{Total Assets}}: Measures asset productivity and operational earning power before tax and leverage distortion.
    4. X4=Market Value of EquityTotal LiabilitiesX_4 = \frac{\text{Market Value of Equity}}{\text{Total Liabilities}}: Measures how much firm assets can decline in market value before liabilities exceed assets (solvency cushion).
    5. X5=SalesTotal AssetsX_5 = \frac{\text{Sales}}{\text{Total Assets}}: Measures asset turnover efficiency.

    Z-Score Zones of Discrimination:

    • Z>2.99Z > 2.99: Safe Zone (Low probability of insolvency)
    • 1.81Z2.991.81 \le Z \le 2.99: Grey Zone (Financial vulnerability; close monitoring required)
    • Z<1.81Z < 1.81: Distress Zone (High probability of bankruptcy within 24 months)
  4. Discuss Quality of Earnings (QoE) analysis in corporate financial reporting. How do analysts detect revenue inflation, aggressive expense capitalization, and cookie-jar reserves?

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    Quality of Earnings (QoE) Analysis

    High quality earnings reflect sustainable, repeatable operational cash flows rather than accounting maneuvers.

    Red Flags and Detection Techniques:

    1. Divergence between Net Income and Cash Flow from Operations (CFO): If reported net profit grows steadily while CFO stagnates or turns negative, it signals aggressive revenue accruals or uncollectible receivables.
    2. Aggressive Expense Capitalization: Capitalizing routine operating expenses (e.g., software maintenance or customer acquisition costs) into balance sheet intangible assets to artificially inflate current-year earnings.
    3. Cookie-Jar Reserves: Over-provisioning restructuring or loan-loss reserves in exceptionally profitable years and reversing them into income during lean years to create artificial earnings smoothing.

Group C

Comprehensive Answer / Case Analysis Question. (1 × 20 = 20)

[1*20=20]
  1. Read the following scenario and answer the questions:

    Comparative Financial Statements for Himalayan Electronics Ltd. for FY 2078/79 and FY 2079/80 are given below (amounts in Rs Millions):

    Statement of Profit or Loss FY 2078/79 (Rs M) FY 2079/80 (Rs M)
    Sales Revenue 1,200 1,600
    Cost of Goods Sold (COGS) (800) (1,150)
    Gross Profit 400 450
    Operating Expenses (Selling & Admin) (200) (260)
    Operating Profit (EBIT) 200 190
    Interest Expense (40) (70)
    Profit Before Tax 160 120
    Income Tax Expense (25%) (40) (30)
    Net Profit After Tax 120 90
    Balance Sheet Assets & Liabilities FY 2078/79 (Rs M) FY 2079/80 (Rs M)
    Cash and Cash Equivalents 60 30
    Accounts Receivable 150 280
    Inventory 200 360
    Net Property, Plant & Equipment 600 850
    Total Assets 1,010 1,520
    Accounts Payable 110 170
    Short-Term Bank Borrowings 100 250
    Long-Term Debt 200 400
    Shareholders’ Equity 600 700
    Total Liabilities & Equity 1,010 1,520

    Questions: a. Calculate and compare for both years: Current Ratio, Quick Ratio, Debt-to-Equity Ratio, and Interest Coverage Ratio. b. Perform a Common-Size Income Statement Analysis and evaluate why Net Profit declined despite a 33% revenue surge. c. Prepare the Cash Flow from Operating Activities (Direct or Indirect method) for FY 2079/80. d. Formulate an executive financial advisory evaluation on the company’s financial health, working capital traps, and solvency risks.

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    Financial Analysis: Himalayan Electronics Ltd.

    a. Comparative Ratio Analysis

    Financial Ratio FY 2078/79 FY 2079/80 Directional Trend
    Current Ratio (Current AssetsCurrent Liabilities\frac{\text{Current Assets}}{\text{Current Liabilities}}) 60+150+200110+100=410210=1.95\frac{60+150+200}{110+100} = \frac{410}{210} = \mathbf{1.95} 30+280+360170+250=670420=1.60\frac{30+280+360}{170+250} = \frac{670}{420} = \mathbf{1.60} Deteriorating
    Quick Ratio (Cash + DebtorsCurrent Liabilities\frac{\text{Cash + Debtors}}{\text{Current Liabilities}}) 60+150210=210210=1.00\frac{60+150}{210} = \frac{210}{210} = \mathbf{1.00} 30+280420=310420=0.74\frac{30+280}{420} = \frac{310}{420} = \mathbf{0.74} Acute Liquidity Strain (<1.0< 1.0)
    Debt-to-Equity Ratio (Total DebtEquity\frac{\text{Total Debt}}{\text{Equity}}) 100+200600=300600=0.50\frac{100+200}{600} = \frac{300}{600} = \mathbf{0.50} 250+400700=650700=0.93\frac{250+400}{700} = \frac{650}{700} = \mathbf{0.93} Surging Leverage (+86%)
    Interest Coverage Ratio (EBITInterest\frac{\text{EBIT}}{\text{Interest}}) 20040=5.00×\frac{200}{40} = \mathbf{5.00 \times} 19070=2.71×\frac{190}{70} = \mathbf{2.71 \times} Eroding Solvency Cushion

    b. Common-Size Income Statement Analysis (% of Sales)

    Item FY 2078/79 FY 2079/80 Analysis
    Sales 100.0% 100.0% Revenue expanded +33.3%
    Cost of Goods Sold 66.7% 71.9% COGS escalated by 5.2% of sales
    Gross Profit Margin 33.3% 28.1% Margin compressed by 520 bps
    Operating Expenses 16.7% 16.3% Controlled
    Operating Margin (EBIT) 16.7% 11.9% Dropped by 480 bps
    Interest Expense 3.3% 4.4% Ballooning debt service
    Net Profit Margin 10.0% 5.6% Nearly halved!

    Key Finding: Net profit fell from Rs 120M to Rs 90M because the company engaged in aggressive price-discounted volume growth (Gross margin contracted from 33.3% to 28.1%) combined with a 75% spike in interest expenses (Rs 70M vs Rs 40M) from heavy borrowing.


    c. Cash Flow from Operating Activities (Indirect Method for FY 2079/80)

    Cash Flow from Operating Activities Amount (Rs M)
    Net Profit Before Tax 120
    Adjustments for Non-Cash / Financing Items:
    Add: Interest Expense (Financing activity) 70
    Add: Depreciation (Assumed PPE addition net: Rs 50M) 50
    Operating Profit before Working Capital Changes 240
    Working Capital Changes:
    Increase in Accounts Receivable (280150280 - 150) (130)
    Increase in Inventory (360200360 - 200) (160)
    Increase in Accounts Payable (170110170 - 110) 60
    Cash Generated from Operations 10
    Less: Income Taxes Paid (30)
    Less: Interest Paid (70)
    Net Cash Flow from Operating Activities (CFO) (90) Million (Negative!)

    d. Executive Financial Advisory Evaluation

    1. The ‘Profitable but Cash-Broke’ Trap: Despite reporting Rs 90M in net accounting profit, the company burned Rs 90M in cash from operations because capital was swallowed by uncontrolled inventory (+Rs 160M) and overdue receivables (+Rs 130M).
    2. High Bankruptcy Vulnerability: The quick ratio collapsed to 0.74 while total debt surged to Rs 650M. If market interest rates rise or debtors default, the company faces immediate debt-service insolvency.
    3. Corrective Action: Immediate freeze on new CapEx; aggressive collection of Rs 280M receivables; liquidate slow-moving inventory to pay down short-term bank borrowings.