Model paper

Dean's Office Official Model Question Paper

BNK 220 · Security Analysis and Portfolio Management

Programme
BBM
Academic year
Semester 6
Paper type
Official Model Question
Sitting
Dean's Office Blueprint
Full marks
60
Duration
180 minutes

Tribhuvan University

Faculty of Management

Office of the Dean

Official Model Question Paper / Dean's Office Blueprint

Course: BNK 220 · Security Analysis and Portfolio Management

Level: Bachelor of Business Management (BBM) · Semester 6

Full Marks: 60

Time: 3 hrs.

Candidates are required to give their answers in their own words as far as practicable. Figures in the margin indicate full marks.

Group A

Brief Answer Questions. Attempt ALL questions. (5 × 2 = 10)

[5*2=10]
  1. Distinguish between systematic risk and unsystematic risk in investment finance.

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    Systematic vs. Unsystematic Risk

    • Systematic (Market) Risk: Macroeconomic risk factors affecting the entire financial market (interest rate changes, inflation, GDP shocks, political events). It cannot be eliminated through diversification (measured by Beta β\beta).
    • Unsystematic (Specific) Risk: Microeconomic risk factors unique to a specific firm or industry (strikes, management errors, patent expiration). It can be diversified away in a well-diversified portfolio.
  2. State the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula and define its components.

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    CAPM Formula

    E(Ri)=Rf+βi[E(Rm)Rf]E(R_i) = R_f + \beta_i [E(R_m) - R_f]

    Where:

    • E(Ri)E(R_i) = Expected return on security ii
    • RfR_f = Risk-free rate of return
    • βi\beta_i = Beta coefficient (systematic risk measure of asset ii relative to market)
    • E(Rm)E(R_m) = Expected return on the market portfolio
    • [E(Rm)Rf][E(R_m) - R_f] = Market risk premium
  3. Define the Efficient Market Hypothesis (EMH) and state its three forms (Weak, Semi-Strong, Strong).

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    Efficient Market Hypothesis (EMH)

    EMH posits that asset prices fully and instantaneously reflect all available information.

    1. Weak Form: Prices reflect all historical trading data and price trends (technical analysis cannot yield abnormal returns).
    2. Semi-Strong Form: Prices reflect all publicly available information (fundamental analysis cannot yield abnormal returns).
    3. Strong Form: Prices reflect all public and private insider information.
  4. What is the Sharpe Ratio and what does it measure?

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    Sharpe Ratio

    Sharpe Ratio=RpRfσp\text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{R_p - R_f}{\sigma_p}

    It measures the excess return earned by a portfolio per unit of total risk (standard deviation σp\sigma_p). A higher Sharpe ratio indicates superior risk-adjusted performance.

  5. Differentiate between Capital Market Line (CML) and Security Market Line (SML).

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    CML vs. SML

    • Capital Market Line (CML): Evaluates efficient portfolios only, graphing expected return against total risk (Standard Deviation σ\sigma).
    • Security Market Line (SML): Evaluates any individual security or portfolio (efficient or inefficient), graphing expected return against systematic risk (Beta β\beta).

Group B

Short Answer Questions. Attempt any THREE questions. (3 × 10 = 30)

[3*10=30]
  1. An investor is evaluating two stocks, Stock X and Stock Y, with the following probability distribution of returns:

    Economic State Probability (PiP_i) Return on X (RXR_X) Return on Y (RYR_Y)
    Boom 0.30 25% 15%
    Normal 0.50 15% 10%
    Recession 0.20 -5% 5%

    Required: a. Calculate the Expected Return and Standard Deviation for both stocks. b. If a portfolio is formed by investing 60% in Stock X and 40% in Stock Y, calculate the Covariance, Correlation Coefficient, and Portfolio Expected Return and Standard Deviation.

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    Portfolio Risk and Return Computation

    a. Expected Return and Standard Deviation of Stocks X and Y

    Stock X:

    E(RX)=PiRX,i=0.30(25)+0.50(15)+0.20(5)=7.5+7.51.0=14%E(R_X) = \sum P_i R_{X,i} = 0.30(25) + 0.50(15) + 0.20(-5) = 7.5 + 7.5 - 1.0 = \mathbf{14\%}
    σX2=0.30(2514)2+0.50(1514)2+0.20(514)2=0.30(121)+0.50(1)+0.20(361)=36.3+0.5+72.2=109\begin{aligned} \sigma_X^2 &= 0.30(25 - 14)^2 + 0.50(15 - 14)^2 + 0.20(-5 - 14)^2 \\ &= 0.30(121) + 0.50(1) + 0.20(361) = 36.3 + 0.5 + 72.2 = 109 \end{aligned}
    σX=10910.44%\sigma_X = \sqrt{109} \approx \mathbf{10.44\%}

    Stock Y:

    E(RY)=PiRY,i=0.30(15)+0.50(10)+0.20(5)=4.5+5.0+1.0=10.5%E(R_Y) = \sum P_i R_{Y,i} = 0.30(15) + 0.50(10) + 0.20(5) = 4.5 + 5.0 + 1.0 = \mathbf{10.5\%}
    σY2=0.30(1510.5)2+0.50(1010.5)2+0.20(510.5)2=0.30(20.25)+0.50(0.25)+0.20(30.25)=6.075+0.125+6.05=12.25\begin{aligned} \sigma_Y^2 &= 0.30(15 - 10.5)^2 + 0.50(10 - 10.5)^2 + 0.20(5 - 10.5)^2 \\ &= 0.30(20.25) + 0.50(0.25) + 0.20(30.25) = 6.075 + 0.125 + 6.05 = 12.25 \end{aligned}
    σY=12.25=3.50%\sigma_Y = \sqrt{12.25} = \mathbf{3.50\%}


    b. Covariance, Correlation, and Portfolio Metrics (wX=0.60,wY=0.40w_X = 0.60, w_Y = 0.40)

    Covariance (CovXYCov_{XY}):

    CovXY=Pi[RX,iE(RX)][RY,iE(RY)]=0.30(2514)(1510.5)+0.50(1514)(1010.5)+0.20(514)(510.5)=0.30(11)(4.5)+0.50(1)(0.5)+0.20(19)(5.5)=14.850.25+20.90=35.50\begin{aligned} Cov_{XY} &= \sum P_i [R_{X,i} - E(R_X)][R_{Y,i} - E(R_Y)] \\ &= 0.30(25 - 14)(15 - 10.5) + 0.50(15 - 14)(10 - 10.5) + 0.20(-5 - 14)(5 - 10.5) \\ &= 0.30(11)(4.5) + 0.50(1)(-0.5) + 0.20(-19)(-5.5) \\ &= 14.85 - 0.25 + 20.90 = \mathbf{35.50} \end{aligned}

    Correlation Coefficient (ρXY\rho_{XY}):

    ρXY=CovXYσXσY=35.5010.44×3.50=35.5036.54+0.9715\rho_{XY} = \frac{Cov_{XY}}{\sigma_X \sigma_Y} = \frac{35.50}{10.44 \times 3.50} = \frac{35.50}{36.54} \approx \mathbf{+0.9715}

    Portfolio Expected Return (E(Rp)E(R_p)):

    E(Rp)=wXE(RX)+wYE(RY)=0.60(14)+0.40(10.5)=8.4+4.2=12.60%E(R_p) = w_X E(R_X) + w_Y E(R_Y) = 0.60(14) + 0.40(10.5) = 8.4 + 4.2 = \mathbf{12.60\%}

    Portfolio Standard Deviation (σp\sigma_p):

    σp2=wX2σX2+wY2σY2+2wXwYCovXY=(0.60)2(109)+(0.40)2(12.25)+2(0.60)(0.40)(35.50)=0.36(109)+0.16(12.25)+0.48(35.50)=39.24+1.96+17.04=58.24\begin{aligned} \sigma_p^2 &= w_X^2 \sigma_X^2 + w_Y^2 \sigma_Y^2 + 2 w_X w_Y Cov_{XY} \\ &= (0.60)^2(109) + (0.40)^2(12.25) + 2(0.60)(0.40)(35.50) \\ &= 0.36(109) + 0.16(12.25) + 0.48(35.50) = 39.24 + 1.96 + 17.04 = 58.24 \end{aligned}
    σp=58.247.63%\sigma_p = \sqrt{58.24} \approx \mathbf{7.63\%}

    (Note: Through portfolio diversification, portfolio risk of 7.63% is significantly lower than Stock X’s individual risk of 10.44%).

  2. Explain Harry Markowitz’s Modern Portfolio Theory (MPT). How does the Efficient Frontier optimize risk-return trade-offs under varying asset correlations?

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    Markowitz Modern Portfolio Theory (MPT) and Efficient Frontier

    Markowitz established that an asset’s risk should not be assessed in isolation, but by how it contributes to an overall portfolio’s risk-return profile.

    Expected Return E(R)
       ^
       |               EFFICIENT FRONTIER
       |                 *  *  *
       |              *           Optimal Portfolio
       |            *           /
       |           * <---------+
       |          *
       |  MVP -> *
       |          *  (Feasible Set)
       |           *
       +-------------------------------------> Total Risk (Sigma)
    

    1. Core Principles of MPT

    • Diversification and Correlation: As long as asset returns are not perfectly positively correlated (ρ<+1\rho < +1), combining assets reduces overall portfolio variance without sacrificing expected return.
    • Minimum Variance Portfolio (MVP): The portfolio on the efficient frontier with the lowest possible risk.
    • The Efficient Frontier: The set of optimal portfolios that offer the highest expected return for a given level of risk, or the lowest risk for a given level of expected return.

    2. Investor Utility Optimization

    • An investor’s optimal portfolio occurs at the tangency point where their indifference curve touches the Efficient Frontier.
  3. Explain the Dividend Discount Models (DDM): Gordon Growth Model and Multistage Growth Model for fundamental equity valuation.

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    Dividend Discount Models (DDM) in Equity Valuation

    DDM values a share of common stock as the present value of all expected future cash dividends.

    1. Constant Growth DDM (Gordon Growth Model)

    Assumes dividends grow indefinitely at a constant rate g<rg < r:

    P0=D1rg=D0(1+g)rgP_0 = \frac{D_1}{r - g} = \frac{D_0 (1 + g)}{r - g}

    Where:

    • P0P_0 = Intrinsic value per share today
    • D0D_0 = Current dividend paid
    • D1D_1 = Expected dividend in year 1
    • rr = Required rate of return on equity (via CAPM)
    • gg = Constant sustainable growth rate (g=b×ROEg = b \times ROE, where bb is retention ratio)

    2. Two-Stage / Multistage Growth Model

    Used for high-growth enterprises that experience a temporary phase of supernormal growth (gsg_s) followed by long-term stable growth (gng_n):

    P0=t=1nDt(1+r)t+Pn(1+r)n,where Pn=Dn+1rgnP_0 = \sum_{t=1}^n \frac{D_t}{(1 + r)^t} + \frac{P_n}{(1 + r)^n}, \quad \text{where } P_n = \frac{D_{n+1}}{r - g_n}
  4. Compare portfolio performance evaluation measures: Sharpe Ratio, Treynor Ratio, and Jensen’s Alpha.

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    Portfolio Performance Evaluation Measures

    Measure Formula Risk Measure Used Application Focus
    Sharpe Ratio Sp=RpRfσpS_p = \frac{R_p - R_f}{\sigma_p} Total Risk (Standard Deviation σp\sigma_p) Best for evaluating undiversified portfolios where investor wealth is concentrated.
    Treynor Ratio Tp=RpRfβpT_p = \frac{R_p - R_f}{\beta_p} Systematic Risk (Beta βp\beta_p) Best for evaluating well-diversified portfolios that form part of a broader holdings mix.
    Jensen’s Alpha αp=Rp[Rf+βp(RmRf)]\alpha_p = R_p - [R_f + \beta_p (R_m - R_f)] Systematic Risk (Relative to CAPM benchmark) Measures active fund manager stock-picking skill: positive alpha indicates superior outperformance.

Group C

Comprehensive Answer / Case Analysis Question. (1 × 20 = 20)

[1*20=20]
  1. Read the following scenario and answer the questions:

    An institutional asset management firm in Nepal is managing a Rs 500 million equity portfolio. The chief investment officer (CIO) is analyzing four candidate commercial bank stocks listed on the Nepal Stock Exchange (NEPSE) with the following parameters:

    Stock Expected Return (E(Ri)E(R_i)) Beta (βi\beta_i) Current Market Price (P0P_0) Last Dividend Paid (D0D_0) Expected Growth Rate (gg)
    Bank A 16.5% 1.30 Rs 420 Rs 18 8%
    Bank B 13.0% 0.85 Rs 280 Rs 14 6%
    Bank C 14.5% 1.10 Rs 350 Rs 15 7%
    Bank D 11.5% 0.65 Rs 210 Rs 10 5%

    The current risk-free rate (RfR_f) on Government of Nepal Treasury Bills is 6.0%, and the expected return on the NEPSE Index (E(Rm)E(R_m)) is 13.0%.

    Questions: a. Calculate the required rate of return for each bank stock using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). b. Compare the expected return of each stock with its CAPM required rate of return to determine whether each stock is Underpriced, Overpriced, or Correctly Priced on the Security Market Line (SML), specifying Buy/Sell recommendations. c. Compute the intrinsic value of each stock using the Gordon Growth Model based on its CAPM required rate of return, and evaluate whether the current market prices are attractive. d. Formulate an optimal portfolio asset allocation strategy to maximize the Sharpe ratio while achieving an overall portfolio beta of 1.00.

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    Comprehensive Security and Portfolio Analysis

    a. CAPM Required Rate of Return Computation

    CAPM Formula: ki=Rf+βi[E(Rm)Rf]\text{CAPM Formula: } k_i = R_f + \beta_i [E(R_m) - R_f]

    Given: Rf=6.0%R_f = 6.0\%, E(Rm)=13.0%E(R_m) = 13.0\%, Market Risk Premium = 13.06.0=7.0%13.0 - 6.0 = 7.0\%.

    • Bank A: kA=6.0+1.30(7.0)=6.0+9.10=15.10%k_A = 6.0 + 1.30(7.0) = 6.0 + 9.10 = \mathbf{15.10\%}
    • Bank B: kB=6.0+0.85(7.0)=6.0+5.95=11.95%k_B = 6.0 + 0.85(7.0) = 6.0 + 5.95 = \mathbf{11.95\%}
    • Bank C: kC=6.0+1.10(7.0)=6.0+7.70=13.70%k_C = 6.0 + 1.10(7.0) = 6.0 + 7.70 = \mathbf{13.70\%}
    • Bank D: kD=6.0+0.65(7.0)=6.0+4.55=10.55%k_D = 6.0 + 0.65(7.0) = 6.0 + 4.55 = \mathbf{10.55\%}

    b. Valuation on the Security Market Line (SML)

    Stock Expected Return CAPM Required Return Alpha (αi=E(Ri)ki\alpha_i = E(R_i) - k_i) Valuation Status Recommendation
    Bank A 16.50% 15.10% +1.40%+1.40\% Underpriced (Plots above SML) BUY / Overweight
    Bank B 13.00% 11.95% +1.05%+1.05\% Underpriced (Plots above SML) BUY / Overweight
    Bank C 14.50% 13.70% +0.80%+0.80\% Underpriced (Plots above SML) BUY
    Bank D 11.50% 10.55% +0.95%+0.95\% Underpriced (Plots above SML) BUY

    All four stocks generate positive alpha and plot above the SML, offering excess risk-adjusted returns relative to the market.


    c. Intrinsic Value via Gordon Growth Model (P0=D0(1+g)kigP_0 = \frac{D_0(1 + g)}{k_i - g})

    • Bank A:

      D1=18(1+0.08)=19.44D_1 = 18(1 + 0.08) = 19.44
      VA=19.440.15100.08=19.440.0710Rs 273.80V_A = \frac{19.44}{0.1510 - 0.08} = \frac{19.44}{0.0710} \approx \mathbf{\text{Rs } 273.80}
      Comparison: Market price is Rs 420. Despite positive CAPM alpha, under fundamental DDM dividend capitalization, Bank A is Market Overvalued (P0>VAP_0 > V_A).

    • Bank B:

      D1=14(1+0.06)=14.84D_1 = 14(1 + 0.06) = 14.84
      VB=14.840.11950.06=14.840.0595Rs 249.41V_B = \frac{14.84}{0.1195 - 0.06} = \frac{14.84}{0.0595} \approx \mathbf{\text{Rs } 249.41}
      Comparison: Market price is Rs 280. Moderately overvalued on DDM.

    • Bank C:

      D1=15(1+0.07)=16.05D_1 = 15(1 + 0.07) = 16.05
      VC=16.050.13700.07=16.050.0670Rs 239.55V_C = \frac{16.05}{0.1370 - 0.07} = \frac{16.05}{0.0670} \approx \mathbf{\text{Rs } 239.55}

    • Bank D:

      D1=10(1+0.05)=10.50D_1 = 10(1 + 0.05) = 10.50
      VD=10.500.10550.05=10.500.0555Rs 189.19V_D = \frac{10.50}{0.1055 - 0.05} = \frac{10.50}{0.0555} \approx \mathbf{\text{Rs } 189.19}

    Strategic Takeaway: The discrepancy highlights that NEPSE banking stocks trade at a premium over dividend yields due to stock-dividend (bonus share) expectations.


    d. Target Portfolio Allocation (Portfolio βp=1.00\beta_p = 1.00)

    To achieve a balanced market-risk profile (βp=1.00\beta_p = 1.00) while tilting toward highest alpha:

    • Overweight Bank A (High alpha +1.40%+1.40\%, β=1.30\beta = 1.30) and Bank B (High alpha +1.05%+1.05\%, β=0.85\beta = 0.85):
      βp=wA(1.30)+wB(0.85)=1.00\beta_p = w_A(1.30) + w_B(0.85) = 1.00
      wA+wB=1.00    wB=1wAw_A + w_B = 1.00 \implies w_B = 1 - w_A
      1.30wA+0.85(1wA)=1.001.30 w_A + 0.85(1 - w_A) = 1.00
      0.45wA=0.15    wA=0.150.45=33.33%0.45 w_A = 0.15 \implies w_A = \frac{0.15}{0.45} = \mathbf{33.33\%}
      wB=10.3333=66.67%w_B = 1 - 0.3333 = \mathbf{66.67\%}

    Optimal Allocation: Invest Rs 166.67 million (33.33%) in Bank A and Rs 333.33 million (66.67%) in Bank B to lock in a portfolio beta of exactly 1.00 with superior blended expected return.