Board paper

Fundamentals of Finance 2022 Board Question Paper

FIN 206 · Fundamentals of Finance

Programme
BBM
Academic year
Semester 3
Exam year
2022 AD
Sitting
regular
Full marks
60
Duration
180 minutes

Tribhuvan University

Faculty of Management

Office of the Dean

2022 AD / Regular Examination

Course: FIN 206 · Fundamentals of Finance

Level: Bachelor of Business Management (BBM) · Semester 3

Full Marks: 60

Time: 3 hrs.

Time: 3 hrs. | Full Marks: 60 | Pass Marks: 30

Section A

Brief Answer Questions. Attempt ALL questions.

[10 * 1 = 10]
  1. Write the meaning of business finance.

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    Meaning of Business Finance:

    • Definition: Business finance refers to the strategic management, acquisition, allocation, and monitoring of monetary resources by commercial enterprises.
    • Core Scope: It encompasses three primary financial decisions: investment decisions (capital budgeting), financing decisions (capital structure), and dividend decisions (reinvestment vs. profit distribution) aimed at maximizing shareholder wealth.
  2. Differentiate between a primary market and a secondary market.

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    Primary Market vs. Secondary Market:

    Dimension Primary Market Secondary Market
    Nature of Transaction New securities are issued and sold to the public for the first time (e.g., IPO/FPO). Previously issued existing securities are traded among investors.
    Flow of Funds Proceeds flow directly to the issuing company to fund business expansion. Funds exchange hands strictly between buyers and sellers; the issuing corporation receives nothing.
    Example Initial Public Offering (IPO) on C-ASBA in Nepal. Trading shares on the floor of the Nepal Stock Exchange (NEPSE).
  3. What is meant by free cash flows?

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    Free Cash Flow (FCF):

    • Definition: Free Cash Flow is the net cash generated by operations that remains available for distribution to all capital providers (both debtholders and equityholders) after the firm has paid operating expenses, taxes, and funded necessary net investments in operating working capital and fixed capital assets.
    • Formula:
      FCF=NOPAT+DepreciationNet Capital ExpendituresΔNOWCFCF = \text{NOPAT} + \text{Depreciation} - \text{Net Capital Expenditures} - \Delta NOWC
  4. Write the differentiate between ordinary annuity and annuity due.

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    Ordinary Annuity vs. Annuity Due:

    1. Ordinary Annuity: A series of equal, periodic cash flows where payments occur at the end of each compounding period (e.g., standard mortgage payments, bond coupons).
    2. Annuity Due: A series of equal, periodic cash flows where payments occur at the beginning of each compounding period (e.g., apartment leases, life insurance premiums).
    • Relationship: Because each payment in an annuity due compounds for one additional period, its present and future value equals the ordinary annuity value multiplied by (1+r)(1 + r).
  5. Give the meaning of bond.

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    Meaning of a Bond:

    • Definition: A bond is a formal, legally binding long-term debt security under which the borrower (issuer, such as a government or corporation) promises to pay fixed periodic interest payments (coupon payments) to the lender (investor) and repay the stated principal amount (face/par value) upon reaching maturity.
  6. What is the weighted average cost of capital?

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    Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC):

    • Definition: WACC is the overall weighted average after-tax required rate of return that an organization must earn on its total operating assets to satisfy the return expectations of all its long-term capital providers (creditors, preferred stockholders, and common shareholders).
    • Formula:
      WACC=wdrd(1T)+wprp+wersWACC = w_d \cdot r_d(1 - T) + w_p \cdot r_p + w_e \cdot r_s
  7. What are financial securities? Describe some financial instruments.

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    Financial Securities and Instruments:

    • Definition: Financial securities are tradable financial assets or legal contracts that represent a monetary claim on future cash flows or an ownership interest in a business entity.
    • Common Instruments:
      1. Money Market Instruments (Short-term, < 1 year): Treasury Bills (T-bills), Commercial Paper, Certificates of Deposit (CDs).
      2. Capital Market Instruments (Long-term): Common Stock (equity ownership), Corporate Debentures/Bonds, and Preferred Stock.
  8. The real risk-free rate is 3%, inflation is expected to be 2 % this year and 4% during the next 2 years. Assume that the maturity risk premium is zero. What is the yield on two-year Treasury securities?

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    Yield on Two-Year Treasury Securities:

    Given:

    • Real risk-free rate (rr^*) = 3%3\%
    • Expected inflation Year 1 (I1I_1) = 2%2\%
    • Expected inflation Year 2 (I2I_2) = 4%4\%
    • Maturity risk premium (MRPMRP) = 0%0\%

    Step 1: Compute Average Inflation Premium (IP2IP_2)

    IP2=I1+I22=2%+4%2=3%IP_2 = \frac{I_1 + I_2}{2} = \frac{2\% + 4\%}{2} = \mathbf{3\%}

    Step 2: Calculate 2-Year Treasury Yield (T2T_2)

    T2=r+IP2+MRP=3%+3%+0%=6%T_2 = r^* + IP_2 + MRP = 3\% + 3\% + 0\% = \mathbf{6\%}

    Final Answer: The yield on two-year Treasury securities is 6%.

  9. Chandra Brothers recently reported earnings before interest, taxes, depreciation and amortization (EBITDA) OF Rs 7.5 million and net income of Rs. 1.8 million. It had Rs 2.0 million of interest expense, and its corporate tax rate was 40%. What was its charge for depreciation and amortization?

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    Calculation of Depreciation and Amortization Charge:

    Given:

    • EBITDA=Rs 7.5 millionEBITDA = \text{Rs } 7.5 \text{ million}
    • Net Income (NI)=Rs 1.8 million\text{Net Income } (NI) = \text{Rs } 1.8 \text{ million}
    • Interest Expense (I)=Rs 2.0 million\text{Interest Expense } (I) = \text{Rs } 2.0 \text{ million}
    • Tax Rate (T)=40%    (1T)=0.60\text{Tax Rate } (T) = 40\% \implies (1 - T) = 0.60

    Step 1: Compute Earnings Before Taxes (EBT)

    EBT=NI1T=1.80.60=Rs 3.0 millionEBT = \frac{NI}{1 - T} = \frac{1.8}{0.60} = \text{Rs } 3.0 \text{ million}

    Step 2: Compute Operating Income (EBIT)

    EBIT=EBT+Interest=3.0+2.0=Rs 5.0 millionEBIT = EBT + \text{Interest} = 3.0 + 2.0 = \text{Rs } 5.0 \text{ million}

    Step 3: Compute Depreciation and Amortization (D&A)

    D&A=EBITDAEBIT=7.55.0=Rs  2.5 millionD\&A = EBITDA - EBIT = 7.5 - 5.0 = \mathbf{Rs \; 2.5 \text{ million}}

    Final Answer: The charge for depreciation and amortization is Rs 2.5 million.

  10. Compute the yield to maturity of the following bonds: a. A zero coupon bond that is currently priced at Rs 400 and matures with a face value of Rs 1,000 in 8 years. b. A perpetual bound that pays 15% annual coupon rate on par value of Rs 1,000. The bond is selling at Rs 900.

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    Calculation of Yield to Maturity (YTM):

    a. Zero-Coupon Bond:

    • Price (P0P_0) = Rs 400\text{Rs } 400, Par Value (MM) = Rs 1,000\text{Rs } 1,000, Maturity (nn) = 8 years8 \text{ years}P0=M(1+YTM)n    400=1000(1+YTM)8P_0 = \frac{M}{(1 + YTM)^n} \implies 400 = \frac{1000}{(1 + YTM)^8}$
      (1+YTM)8=1000400=2.50(1 + YTM)^8 = \frac{1000}{400} = 2.50
      1+YTM=(2.50)1/8=(2.50)0.1251.12135    YTM=12.14%1 + YTM = (2.50)^{1/8} = (2.50)^{0.125} \approx 1.12135 \implies YTM = \mathbf{12.14\%}

    b. Perpetual Bond:

    • Par Value = Rs 1,000\text{Rs } 1,000, Coupon Rate = 15%    I=1,000×0.15=Rs 15015\% \implies I = 1,000 \times 0.15 = \text{Rs } 150
    • Current Price (P0P_0) = Rs 900\text{Rs } 900YTM=IP0=150900=1616.67%YTM = \frac{I}{P_0} = \frac{150}{900} = \frac{1}{6} \approx \mathbf{16.67\%}$

    Final Answer:

    • a. Zero-Coupon YTM: 12.14%
    • b. Perpetual Bond YTM: 16.67%

Section B

Short Answer Questions. Attempt any FIVE questions.

[5 * 6 = 30]
  1. The common stock of Sagarmatha Company paid Rs 8 in dividends last year. Dividends are expected to grow at a 10% annual rate for an indefinite number of years. a. If Sagarmatha’s current market price is Rs 176, what is the stock’s expected rate of return? b. If your required rate of return is 14%, what is the value of stock today? c. Should you invest your money?

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    Stock Valuation of Sagarmatha Company Using Gordon Growth Model:

    Given Data:

    • Last paid dividend (D0D_0) = Rs 8.00\text{Rs } 8.00
    • Constant dividend growth rate (gg) = 10%=0.1010\% = 0.10
    • Current market price (P0P_0) = Rs 176\text{Rs } 176

    Next expected dividend (D1D_1):

    D1=D0(1+g)=8(1+0.10)=Rs  8.80D_1 = D_0(1 + g) = 8(1 + 0.10) = \mathbf{Rs \; 8.80}


    a. Expected Rate of Return (r^s\hat{r}_s):

    r^s=D1P0+g=8.80176+0.10=0.05+0.10=0.15=15%\hat{r}_s = \frac{D_1}{P_0} + g = \frac{8.80}{176} + 0.10 = 0.05 + 0.10 = 0.15 = \mathbf{15\%}

    b. Intrinsic Value of Stock Today (V0V_0) at rs=14%r_s = 14\%:

    V0=D1rsg=8.800.140.10=8.800.04=Rs  220V_0 = \frac{D_1}{r_s - g} = \frac{8.80}{0.14 - 0.10} = \frac{8.80}{0.04} = \mathbf{Rs \; 220}

    c. Investment Recommendation:

    • Yes, you should invest your money in Sagarmatha Company.
    • Rationale:
      1. The stock’s intrinsic value (Rs 220) is substantially higher than its current market price (Rs 176), indicating the stock is undervalued by the market.
      2. The expected rate of return (15%) exceeds your required rate of return (14%), providing a favorable margin of safety.
  2. The Chaurikhola Credit Card Company offers you a credit card with an Annual percentage Rate (APR) of 19.5%. if interest compounds daily, what is the effective annual rate of interest on this credit card? If the credit card company used monthly compounding, what would be the effective rate of interest?

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    Effective Annual Rate (EAR) Computations for Credit Card APR = 19.5%:

    Given:

    • Nominal Annual Percentage Rate (APRAPR or rr) = 19.5%=0.19519.5\% = 0.195

    General EAR Formula:

    EAR=(1+rm)m1EAR = \left(1 + \frac{r}{m}\right)^m - 1

    1. Daily Compounding (m=365m = 365):

    EARdaily=(1+0.195365)3651=(1+0.0005342466)3651EAR_{\text{daily}} = \left(1 + \frac{0.195}{365}\right)^{365} - 1 = (1 + 0.0005342466)^{365} - 1
    EARdaily=(1.0005342466)36511.215261=0.21526=21.53%EAR_{\text{daily}} = (1.0005342466)^{365} - 1 \approx 1.21526 - 1 = 0.21526 = \mathbf{21.53\%}

    2. Monthly Compounding (m=12m = 12):

    EARmonthly=(1+0.19512)121=(1+0.01625)121EAR_{\text{monthly}} = \left(1 + \frac{0.195}{12}\right)^{12} - 1 = (1 + 0.01625)^{12} - 1
    EARmonthly=(1.01625)1211.213461=0.21346=21.35%EAR_{\text{monthly}} = (1.01625)^{12} - 1 \approx 1.21346 - 1 = 0.21346 = \mathbf{21.35\%}

    Final Answer:

    • EAR under Daily Compounding: 21.53%
    • EAR under Monthly Compounding: 21.35%
  3. What is the statement of cash flow? Briefly explain the four sections shown in the statement of cash flows ?

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    The Statement of Cash Flows and Its Four Core Sections:

    1. Definition

    The Statement of Cash Flows is a primary financial report that tracks and details the gross inflows and outflows of cash and cash equivalents over a specific accounting period, categorizing cash flows according to business purpose.


    2. Four Sections of the Statement of Cash Flows:

    1. Operating Activities:
      • Encompasses cash generated or used in the core revenue-producing operations of the firm.
      • Items: Cash received from customers, cash paid to suppliers and employees, income taxes paid, adjusted for non-cash expenses (depreciation) and working capital changes.
    2. Investing Activities:
      • Reflects cash flows associated with the acquisition and disposal of long-term productive assets and financial investments.
      • Items: Purchase or sale of property, plant, and equipment (CapEx), and purchase/sale of corporate securities.
    3. Financing Activities:
      • Captures transactions between the enterprise and its long-term capital providers (creditors and equity shareholders).
      • Items: Issuance of common stock, proceeds from issuing bonds or bank borrowings, principal debt repayments, and cash dividend distributions.
    4. Reconciliation Summary (Net Increase/Decrease in Cash):
      • Combines net cash from the three operating, investing, and financing tiers with the opening cash balance to determine the closing balance of cash and cash equivalents reported on the Balance Sheet.
  4. Consider the following balance sheet of Sitalpati Company.

    Assets Amount Liabilities and Equity Amount
    Cash Rs 50,000 Account payable Rs 50,000
    Accounts receivable 100,000 Accrued expenses 50,000
    Inventory 400,000 Deferred taxes 50,000
    Furniture 100,000 Debenture 50,000
    Equipment 100,000 Long term loan 150,000
    Land and building 250,000 Common stock 500,000
    Retained earnings 150,000
    Total assets 1,000,000 Total liabilities and equity 1,000,000

    Calculate: a. Current ratio. b. Quick ratio. c. Debt ratio. d. Debt equity ratio. e. Equity Multiplier. f. Long term debt to total assets ratio.

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    Financial Ratio Computations for Sitalpati Company:

    Balance Sheet Aggregates:

    • Current Assets (CACA): Cash (50,000)+AR (100,000)+Inventory (400,000)=Rs  550,000\text{Cash } (50,000) + \text{AR } (100,000) + \text{Inventory } (400,000) = \mathbf{Rs \; 550,000}
    • Quick Assets (QAQA): CAInventory=550,000400,000=Rs  150,000CA - \text{Inventory} = 550,000 - 400,000 = \mathbf{Rs \; 150,000}
    • Current Liabilities (CLCL): AP (50,000)+Accrued Exp (50,000)+Deferred Taxes (50,000)=Rs  150,000\text{AP } (50,000) + \text{Accrued Exp } (50,000) + \text{Deferred Taxes } (50,000) = \mathbf{Rs \; 150,000}
    • Long-Term Debt (LTDLTD): Debentures (50,000)+Long Term Loan (150,000)=Rs  200,000\text{Debentures } (50,000) + \text{Long Term Loan } (150,000) = \mathbf{Rs \; 200,000}
    • Total Debt (TDTD): CL+LTD=150,000+200,000=Rs  350,000CL + LTD = 150,000 + 200,000 = \mathbf{Rs \; 350,000}
    • Total Equity (TETE): Common Stock (500,000)+Retained Earnings (150,000)=Rs  650,000\text{Common Stock } (500,000) + \text{Retained Earnings } (150,000) = \mathbf{Rs \; 650,000}
    • Total Assets (TATA): Rs  1,000,000\mathbf{Rs \; 1,000,000}

    Ratio Calculations:

    a. Current Ratio:

    CACL=550,000150,000=3.67:1\frac{CA}{CL} = \frac{550,000}{150,000} = \mathbf{3.67 : 1}

    b. Quick Ratio:

    QACL=150,000150,000=1.00:1\frac{QA}{CL} = \frac{150,000}{150,000} = \mathbf{1.00 : 1}

    c. Debt Ratio:

    Total DebtTA=350,0001,000,000=35%(0.35)\frac{\text{Total Debt}}{TA} = \frac{350,000}{1,000,000} = \mathbf{35\%} \quad (0.35)

    d. Debt-Equity Ratio:

    Total DebtTE=350,000650,000=0.538:1(53.85%)\frac{\text{Total Debt}}{TE} = \frac{350,000}{650,000} = \mathbf{0.538 : 1} \quad (53.85\%)

    e. Equity Multiplier:

    TATE=1,000,000650,000=1.538\frac{TA}{TE} = \frac{1,000,000}{650,000} = \mathbf{1.538}

    f. Long-Term Debt to Total Assets Ratio:

    LTDTA=200,0001,000,000=20%(0.20)\frac{LTD}{TA} = \frac{200,000}{1,000,000} = \mathbf{20\%} \quad (0.20)

  5. To complete your last year in business school and then go through law school, you will need Rs 10,000 per year for 4 years, starting next year. Your mama offers to put you through, school, and he will deposit in a bank paying 7% interest, compounded annually, a sum of money that is sufficient to provide the 4 payments of Rs 10,000 each. His deposit will be made today. a. How large must the deposit be? b. How much will be in the account immediately after you make the first withdrawal?

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    Tuition Deposit and Account Balance Computations:

    Given:

    • Annual withdrawal (PMTPMT) = Rs 10,000\text{Rs } 10,000 per year
    • Duration (nn) = 4 years4 \text{ years} (starting at the end of Year 1 — ordinary annuity)
    • Interest rate (ii) = 7%=0.077\% = 0.07

    a. Size of Deposit Required Today (PVPV):

    PV=PMT×PVIFA(7%,4)=PMT×[1(1+i)ni]PV = PMT \times PVIFA(7\%, 4) = PMT \times \left[\frac{1 - (1 + i)^{-n}}{i}\right]
    PV=10,000×[1(1.07)40.07]=10,000×[10.7628950.07]=10,000×3.38721=Rs  33,872.11PV = 10,000 \times \left[\frac{1 - (1.07)^{-4}}{0.07}\right] = 10,000 \times \left[\frac{1 - 0.762895}{0.07}\right] = 10,000 \times 3.38721 = \mathbf{Rs \; 33,872.11}

    b. Balance Immediately After the First Withdrawal:

    At the end of Year 1, before withdrawal, the deposit earns 7% interest:

    Balance before withdrawal=33,872.11×(1+0.07)=Rs 36,243.16\text{Balance before withdrawal} = 33,872.11 \times (1 + 0.07) = \text{Rs } 36,243.16
    Balance after first withdrawal=36,243.1610,000=Rs  26,243.16\text{Balance after first withdrawal} = 36,243.16 - 10,000 = \mathbf{Rs \; 26,243.16}

    (Verification: Present value of the remaining 3 payments of Rs 10,000: 10,000×PVIFA(7%,3)=10,000×2.62432=Rs 26,243.2010,000 \times PVIFA(7\%, 3) = 10,000 \times 2.62432 = \text{Rs } 26,243.20).

    Final Answer:

    • a. Deposit required today: Rs 33,872.11
    • b. Account balance after first withdrawal: Rs 26,243.16
  6. The common stocks of the companies X and Y have the expected returns and standard deviations given below; the expected correlation between the two stocks is -0.35.

    Common stock Expected return Standard deviation
    X 10% 5%
    Y 6 4

    Compute the risk and return for a portfolio comprised of 60 percent invested in the stock of company X and 40 percent invested in the stock c.f. company Y.

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    Portfolio Expected Return and Risk (Standard Deviation):

    Given Data:

    • Stock X: E(RX)=10%E(R_X) = 10\%, σX=5%\sigma_X = 5\%, Weight (wXw_X) = 0.600.60
    • Stock Y: E(RY)=6%E(R_Y) = 6\%, σY=4%\sigma_Y = 4\%, Weight (wYw_Y) = 0.400.40
    • Correlation coefficient (rXYr_{XY}) = 0.35-0.35

    1. Portfolio Expected Return (E(Rp)E(R_p)):

    E(Rp)=wXE(RX)+wYE(RY)E(R_p) = w_X E(R_X) + w_Y E(R_Y)
    E(Rp)=(0.60×10%)+(0.40×6%)=6.0%+2.4%=8.4%E(R_p) = (0.60 \times 10\%) + (0.40 \times 6\%) = 6.0\% + 2.4\% = \mathbf{8.4\%}

    2. Portfolio Risk / Standard Deviation (σp\sigma_p):

    σp2=wX2σX2+wY2σY2+2wXwYσXσYrXY\sigma_p^2 = w_X^2 \sigma_X^2 + w_Y^2 \sigma_Y^2 + 2 w_X w_Y \sigma_X \sigma_Y r_{XY}
    σp2=(0.60)2(5)2+(0.40)2(4)2+2(0.60)(0.40)(5)(4)(0.35)\sigma_p^2 = (0.60)^2(5)^2 + (0.40)^2(4)^2 + 2(0.60)(0.40)(5)(4)(-0.35)
    σp2=0.36(25)+0.16(16)+2(0.24)(20)(0.35)\sigma_p^2 = 0.36(25) + 0.16(16) + 2(0.24)(20)(-0.35)
    σp2=9.00+2.563.36=8.20\sigma_p^2 = 9.00 + 2.56 - 3.36 = \mathbf{8.20}
    σp=8.202.86%\sigma_p = \sqrt{8.20} \approx \mathbf{2.86\%}

    Final Answer:

    • Expected Portfolio Return: 8.4%
    • Portfolio Risk (Standard Deviation): 2.86% (Note: Because of negative correlation, portfolio risk is reduced below either individual stock’s risk).

Section C

Comprehensive Answer / Case Study Questions.

[2 * 10 = 20]
  1. (a) Garudnahani Company issues a zero-coupon bond having a 10-years maturity and currently selling at Rs 500. The par value of bond is Rs 1,000. Corporate tax rate is 40%. Calculate the after tax cost of debt. (b) Bhedetar Company’s next expected dividend is Rs 3.18; its growth rate is 6%; and its common stock now sells for Rs 36. New stock (external equity) can be sold to net Rs 32.40 per share. a. What is Bhedetar’s cost of retained earnings? b. What Bhedetar’s percentage flotation cost? c. What Bhedetar’s cost of new common stock?

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    Cost of Capital Computations for Garudnahani and Bhedetar Companies:

    Part (a): Garudnahani Company — After-Tax Cost of Debt

    • Maturity (nn) = 10 years10 \text{ years}, Price (P0P_0) = Rs 500\text{Rs } 500, Par Value (MM) = Rs 1,000\text{Rs } 1,000, Tax Rate (TT) = 40%40\%
    • Pre-tax cost of debt (rdr_d):
      P0=M(1+rd)n    500=1000(1+rd)10    (1+rd)10=2.00P_0 = \frac{M}{(1 + r_d)^n} \implies 500 = \frac{1000}{(1 + r_d)^{10}} \implies (1 + r_d)^{10} = 2.00
      1+rd=(2.00)1/10=1.07177    rd=7.177%1 + r_d = (2.00)^{1/10} = 1.07177 \implies r_d = 7.177\%
    • After-Tax Cost of Debt:
      rd(1T)=7.177%×(10.40)=7.177%×0.60=4.31%r_d(1 - T) = 7.177\% \times (1 - 0.40) = 7.177\% \times 0.60 = \mathbf{4.31\%}

    Part (b): Bhedetar Company — Cost of Equity

    • Next expected dividend (D1D_1) = Rs 3.18\text{Rs } 3.18
    • Constant growth rate (gg) = 6%=0.066\% = 0.06
    • Current stock price (P0P_0) = Rs 36.00\text{Rs } 36.00
    • Net price of new stock (PnP_n) = Rs 32.40\text{Rs } 32.40

    a. Cost of Retained Earnings (rsr_s):

    rs=D1P0+g=3.1836.00+0.06=0.08833+0.06=14.83%r_s = \frac{D_1}{P_0} + g = \frac{3.18}{36.00} + 0.06 = 0.08833 + 0.06 = \mathbf{14.83\%}

    b. Percentage Flotation Cost (FF):

    F=P0PnP0=36.0032.4036.00=3.6036.00=0.10=10%F = \frac{P_0 - P_n}{P_0} = \frac{36.00 - 32.40}{36.00} = \frac{3.60}{36.00} = 0.10 = \mathbf{10\%}

    c. Cost of New Common Stock (rer_e):

    re=D1Pn+g=3.1832.40+0.06=0.09815+0.06=15.82%r_e = \frac{D_1}{P_n} + g = \frac{3.18}{32.40} + 0.06 = 0.09815 + 0.06 = \mathbf{15.82\%}

    Summary of Answers:

    • Part (a): After-tax cost of debt = 4.31%
    • Part (b): Cost of retained earnings = 14.83%, Flotation cost = 10%, Cost of new equity = 15.82%
  2. (a) What is the balance sheet, and what information does it provide? (b) Last year Horleri Company had Rs 5 million in operating income (EBIT). The company had net depreciation expense of Rs. 1 million and interest expense of Rs 1 million; its corporate tax was 40%. The company has Rs 14 million in current assets and Rs 4 million in non-interest-bearing current liabilities’ it has Rs 15 million in net plant and equipment. It estimates that is has an after-tax cost of capital of 10%. Assume that Holeri’s only noncash item was depreciation. i. What was the company’s net income for the year? ii. What was the company’s net cash flow? iii. What was the company’s net operating profit after taxes (NOPAT)? iv. What was the company’s operating cash flow? v. If operating capital in the previous year was Rs 24 million, what was the company’s free cash flow (FCF) for the year? vi. What was the company’s Economic Value Added (EVA)?

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    Balance Sheet Overview and Financial Flow Analysis for Horleri Company:

    Part (a): The Balance Sheet

    • Definition: The Balance Sheet is a snapshot financial statement that reports a company’s financial position at a specific point in time. It details what the firm owns (Assets), what it owes to external creditors (Liabilities), and the residual ownership stake belonging to shareholders (Stockholders’ Equity).
    • Fundamental Equation:
      Assets=Liabilities+Stockholders’ Equity\text{Assets} = \text{Liabilities} + \text{Stockholders' Equity}

    Part (b): Financial Computations for Horleri Company

    Given:

    • EBIT=Rs 5 millionEBIT = \text{Rs } 5 \text{ million}, D&A=Rs 1 millionD\&A = \text{Rs } 1 \text{ million}, Interest=Rs 1 million\text{Interest} = \text{Rs } 1 \text{ million}, T=40%T = 40\%
    • CA=Rs 14 millionCA = \text{Rs } 14 \text{ million}, NIBCL=Rs 4 millionNIBCL = \text{Rs } 4 \text{ million}, Net Plant & Equip=Rs 15 million\text{Net Plant \& Equip} = \text{Rs } 15 \text{ million}
    • Cost of Capital (WACCWACC) = 10%10\%, Previous Year Operating Capital (TOCt1TOC_{t-1}) = Rs 24 million\text{Rs } 24 \text{ million}

    i. Net Income:

    EBT=EBITInterest=5.01.0=Rs 4.0 millionEBT = EBIT - \text{Interest} = 5.0 - 1.0 = \text{Rs } 4.0 \text{ million}
    Taxes=4.0×0.40=Rs 1.6 million\text{Taxes} = 4.0 \times 0.40 = \text{Rs } 1.6 \text{ million}
    Net Income=4.01.6=Rs  2.4 million\text{Net Income} = 4.0 - 1.6 = \mathbf{Rs \; 2.4 \text{ million}}

    ii. Net Cash Flow:

    Net Cash Flow=Net Income+Depreciation=2.4+1.0=Rs  3.4 million\text{Net Cash Flow} = \text{Net Income} + \text{Depreciation} = 2.4 + 1.0 = \mathbf{Rs \; 3.4 \text{ million}}

    iii. Net Operating Profit After Taxes (NOPAT):

    NOPAT=EBIT×(1T)=5.0×(10.40)=5.0×0.60=Rs  3.0 millionNOPAT = EBIT \times (1 - T) = 5.0 \times (1 - 0.40) = 5.0 \times 0.60 = \mathbf{Rs \; 3.0 \text{ million}}

    iv. Operating Cash Flow (OCF):

    OCF=NOPAT+Depreciation=3.0+1.0=Rs  4.0 millionOCF = NOPAT + \text{Depreciation} = 3.0 + 1.0 = \mathbf{Rs \; 4.0 \text{ million}}

    v. Free Cash Flow (FCF):

    • Current Net Operating Working Capital: NOWCt=CANIBCL=14.04.0=Rs 10.0 millionNOWC_t = CA - NIBCL = 14.0 - 4.0 = \text{Rs } 10.0 \text{ million}
    • Total Net Operating Capital: TOCt=NOWCt+Net Fixed Assets=10.0+15.0=Rs 25.0 millionTOC_t = NOWC_t + \text{Net Fixed Assets} = 10.0 + 15.0 = \text{Rs } 25.0 \text{ million}
    • Net Capital Investment: ΔTOC=TOCtTOCt1=25.024.0=Rs 1.0 million\Delta TOC = TOC_t - TOC_{t-1} = 25.0 - 24.0 = \text{Rs } 1.0 \text{ million}FCF=NOPATΔTOC=3.01.0=Rs  2.0 millionFCF = NOPAT - \Delta TOC = 3.0 - 1.0 = \mathbf{Rs \; 2.0 \text{ million}}$

    vi. Economic Value Added (EVA):

    EVA=NOPAT(TOCt1×WACC)=3.0(24.0×0.10)=3.02.4=Rs  0.6 million (Rs 600,000)EVA = NOPAT - (TOC_{t-1} \times WACC) = 3.0 - (24.0 \times 0.10) = 3.0 - 2.4 = \mathbf{Rs \; 0.6 \text{ million (Rs 600,000)}}