Model paper

Dean's Office Official Model Question Paper

FIN 209 · Fundamentals of Financial Derivatives

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Programme
BBA-F
Academic year
Semester 6
Paper type
Official Model Question
Sitting
Dean's Office Blueprint
Full marks
60
Duration
180 minutes

Tribhuvan University

Faculty of Management

Office of the Dean

Official Model Question Paper / Dean's Office Blueprint

Course: FIN 209 · Fundamentals of Financial Derivatives

Level: Bachelor of Business Administration in Finance (BBA-F) · Semester 6

Full Marks: 60

Time: 3 hrs.

Candidates are required to give their answers in their own words as far as practicable. Figures in the margin indicate full marks.

Group A

Brief Answer Questions. Attempt ALL questions. (5 × 2 = 10)

[5*2=10]
  1. Define a Financial Derivative. List four primary derivative contracts.

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    Financial Derivative

    A financial derivative is a financial contract whose value is derived from the value, price, or performance of an underlying asset (stocks, bonds, currencies, interest rates, commodities).

    Four Primary Contracts: Forwards, Futures, Options, and Swaps.

  2. Distinguish between a Forward Contract and a Futures Contract.

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    Forward vs. Futures Contract

    • Forward Contract: A private, bilateral Over-The-Counter (OTC) agreement, fully customized, bearing counterparty default risk, settled at maturity.
    • Futures Contract: A standardized contract traded on an organized exchange, guaranteed by an exchange clearinghouse, with daily mark-to-market margin settlements.
  3. Define a Call Option and a Put Option.

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    Call Option vs. Put Option

    • Call Option: Grants the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to buy an underlying asset at a specified strike price on or before a specified expiration date.
    • Put Option: Grants the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to sell an underlying asset at a specified strike price on or before a specified expiration date.
  4. State the Put-Call Parity formula for European options.

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    Put-Call Parity Formula

    C+KerT=P+S0C + K e^{-rT} = P + S_0

    Where:

    • CC = Price of European call option
    • KerTK e^{-rT} = Present value of strike price KK
    • PP = Price of European put option
    • S0S_0 = Current spot price of underlying asset
  5. Distinguish between In-The-Money (ITM), At-The-Money (ATM), and Out-Of-The-Money (OTM) call options.

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    Moneyness of Call Options

    For a call option with spot price SS and strike price KK:

    • In-The-Money (ITM): S>KS > K (Positive intrinsic value SKS - K).
    • At-The-Money (ATM): S=KS = K (Zero intrinsic value).
    • Out-Of-The-Money (OTM): S<KS < K (Zero intrinsic value; would expire worthless if exercised today).

Group B

Short Answer Questions. Attempt any THREE questions. (3 × 10 = 30)

[3*10=30]
  1. Explain the Binomial Option Pricing Model. A stock currently trades at S0=100S_0 = 100. In one year, it can either rise by 20% to Su=120S_u = 120 or fall by 10% to Sd=90S_d = 90. The risk-free interest rate is 5% per annum. a. Calculate the risk-neutral probabilities (qq and 1q1 - q). b. Compute the fair value of a European Call Option with a strike price of K=105K = 105 expiring in one year.

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    Binomial Option Pricing Model

    a. Risk-Neutral Probability Calculation

    Parameters:

    • S0=100S_0 = 100
    • u=1.20u = 1.20 (Up factor)
    • d=0.90d = 0.90 (Down factor)
    • r=0.05    erT=1+r=1.05r = 0.05 \implies e^{rT} = 1 + r = 1.05 (annual compounding)
    Risk-Neutral Probability q=erTdud=1.050.901.200.90=0.150.30=0.50\text{Risk-Neutral Probability } q = \frac{e^{rT} - d}{u - d} = \frac{1.05 - 0.90}{1.20 - 0.90} = \frac{0.15}{0.30} = \mathbf{0.50}
    1q=10.50=0.501 - q = 1 - 0.50 = \mathbf{0.50}

    b. Call Option Valuation (K=105K = 105)

    Option payoffs at maturity (T=1T = 1):

    • Up State (Su=120S_u = 120):
      Cu=max(0,SuK)=max(0,120105)=15C_u = \max(0, S_u - K) = \max(0, 120 - 105) = 15
    • Down State (Sd=90S_d = 90):
      Cd=max(0,SdK)=max(0,90105)=0C_d = \max(0, S_d - K) = \max(0, 90 - 105) = 0

    Discounted Expected Payoff:

    C0=qCu+(1q)Cd1+r=0.50(15)+0.50(0)1.05=7.501.057.14C_0 = \frac{q C_u + (1 - q) C_d}{1 + r} = \frac{0.50(15) + 0.50(0)}{1.05} = \frac{7.50}{1.05} \approx \mathbf{7.14}

    The fair value of the European call option today is Rs 7.14.

  2. Explain the Black-Scholes-Merton (BSM) Option Pricing Model. Define the five key input parameters and the Option Greeks: Delta, Gamma, Vega, Theta, and Rho.

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    Black-Scholes-Merton (BSM) Model and Option Greeks

    1. BSM Model Formula for European Call

    C=S0N(d1)KerTN(d2)C = S_0 N(d_1) - K e^{-rT} N(d_2)
    d1=ln(S0/K)+(r+σ2/2)TσT,d2=d1σTd_1 = \frac{\ln(S_0/K) + (r + \sigma^2/2)T}{\sigma \sqrt{T}}, \quad d_2 = d_1 - \sigma \sqrt{T}
    • Five Inputs: Current spot price (S0S_0), Strike price (KK), Risk-free rate (rr), Time to expiration (TT), and Volatility of underlying asset (σ\sigma).

    2. The Option Greeks

    • Delta (Δ\Delta): Rate of change of option price with respect to changes in underlying asset price (CS\frac{\partial C}{\partial S}). Used for delta-hedging.
    • Gamma (Γ\Gamma): Rate of change of Delta with respect to underlying asset price (2CS2\frac{\partial^2 C}{\partial S^2}).
    • Vega (ν\nu): Sensitivity of option price to changes in underlying asset volatility (Cσ\frac{\partial C}{\partial \sigma}).
    • Theta (Θ\Theta): Time decay; rate of change of option price as time to maturity passes (Ct\frac{\partial C}{\partial t}).
    • Rho (ρ\rho): Sensitivity of option price to changes in the risk-free interest rate (Cr\frac{\partial C}{\partial r}).
  3. Discuss option trading strategies: Protective Put, Covered Call, Straddle, and Bull Call Spread with payoff graphs.

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    Option Trading Strategies

    1. Protective Put (Synthetic Call)

    • Long Stock + Long Put.
    • Objective: Downside insurance: protects stock holdings against price collapse while retaining unlimited upside potential.

    2. Covered Call

    • Long Stock + Short Call.
    • Objective: Income generation in neutral or mildly bullish markets; writing calls generates premium income, but caps upside at strike price.

    3. Long Straddle

    • Long Call + Long Put at the same strike price and expiration date.
    • Objective: Bet on high volatility; profits if the asset price moves sharply in either direction (e.g., ahead of major earnings announcements or court verdicts).

    4. Bull Call Spread

    • Long Call at lower strike K1K_1 + Short Call at higher strike K2K_2.
    • Objective: Moderately bullish view; premium paid for K1K_1 is partially offset by premium received from K2K_2, reducing capital outlay while capping maximum profit.
  4. Explain Interest Rate Swaps (IRS). How does a Comparative Advantage Argument create mutual borrowing cost savings between two corporate borrowers?

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    Interest Rate Swaps and Comparative Advantage

    An Interest Rate Swap is an agreement between two parties to exchange interest payment streams (fixed for floating) on an agreed notional principal.

    The Comparative Advantage Argument:

    Assume Company A and Company B face the following borrowing rates:

    Borrower Fixed Rate Market Floating Rate Market
    Company A (AAA-rated) 8.0% SOFR + 0.5%
    Company B (BBB-rated) 10.5% SOFR + 1.5%
    Differential / Advantage 2.5% Advantage in Fixed 1.0% Advantage in Floating
    • Company A has an absolute advantage in both, but a comparative advantage in Fixed debt (spread = 2.5% vs 1.0%).
    • Company B has a comparative advantage in Floating debt.
    • Total Swap Gain: 2.5%1.0%=1.5%2.5\% - 1.0\% = \mathbf{1.5\%} total potential interest savings.
    • By entering an IRS, Company A issues fixed debt and swaps into floating, while Company B issues floating and swaps into fixed, splitting the 1.5% savings via an intermediary swap bank.

Group C

Comprehensive Answer / Case Analysis Question. (1 × 20 = 20)

[1*20=20]
  1. Read the following scenario and answer the questions:

    Himalayan Petroleum Importers Ltd. in Kathmandu imports 500,000 barrels of refined petroleum products every quarter from Singapore. Global oil prices are currently trading at USD 80 per barrel. The CFO fears that escalating geopolitical turmoil in the Middle East could cause oil prices to spike to USD 110 per barrel over the next six months, which would bankrupt the company’s operating cash margins. However, if peace negotiations succeed, prices could collapse to USD 65 per barrel. The enterprise has three hedging options available on the Singapore Exchange (SGX):

    • Option 1: Enter 6-Month Oil Futures at a futures price of USD 82 per barrel.
    • Option 2: Purchase 6-Month Oil Call Options with Strike Price K = USD 82 per barrel at an option premium of USD 4 per barrel.
    • Option 3: Establish a Zero-Cost Collar: Buy Call Option at Strike K = USD 84 (premium USD 3.50/bbl) financed by selling Put Option at Strike K = USD 76 (premium USD 3.50/bbl).

    Questions: a. Calculate the total procurement cost for the 500,000 barrels under each of the three hedging strategies if the spot price at maturity turns out to be: (i) USD 110 per barrel, and (ii) USD 65 per barrel. b. Compare the risk-return and cash-flow trade-offs of Futures Hedging vs. Option Hedging vs. Zero-Cost Collar. c. Explain the ‘Basis Risk’ that the importer faces between SGX global crude benchmark contracts and domestic wholesale fuel delivery costs in Nepal. d. Formulate a comprehensive Corporate Financial Derivatives Policy establishing board governance, hedge ratios, and counterparty margin limits.

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    Case Analysis: Commodity Derivative Hedging for Himalayan Petroleum Importers Ltd.

    a. Financial Payoff Comparison (500,000 Barrels)

    Scenario (i): Oil Spikes to USD 110 per Barrel (Severe Geopolitical Crisis)

    • 1. Futures Hedge:
      Effective Cost=Locked Futures Price=USD 82/bbl\text{Effective Cost} = \text{Locked Futures Price} = \text{USD } 82 / \text{bbl}
      Total Cost=500,000×USD 82=USD 41,000,000\text{Total Cost} = 500{,}000 \times \text{USD } 82 = \mathbf{\text{USD } 41{,}000{,}000}
    • 2. Call Option (K=USD 82K = \text{USD } 82, Premium = USD 4\text{USD } 4):
      • Exercise call at USD 82; Net effective price = USD 82+4=USD 86/bbl\text{USD } 82 + 4 = \text{USD } 86 / \text{bbl}. Total Cost=500,000×USD 86=USD 43,000,000\text{Total Cost} = 500{,}000 \times \text{USD } 86 = \mathbf{\text{USD } 43{,}000{,}000}
    • 3. Zero-Cost Collar (KCall=USD 84,KPut=USD 76K_{\text{Call}} = \text{USD } 84, K_{\text{Put}} = \text{USD } 76):
      • Call exercised at USD 84; Put expires worthless. Net premium paid = USD 0. Total Cost=500,000×USD 84=USD 42,000,000\text{Total Cost} = 500{,}000 \times \text{USD } 84 = \mathbf{\text{USD } 42{,}000{,}000}

    Scenario (ii): Oil Collapses to USD 65 per Barrel (Peace Accord)

    • 1. Futures Hedge:
      • Obligated to buy at futures price of USD 82; cannot benefit from market drop. Total Cost=500,000×USD 82=USD 41,000,000\text{Total Cost} = 500{,}000 \times \text{USD } 82 = \mathbf{\text{USD } 41{,}000{,}000}
    • 2. Call Option:
      • Let call expire worthless; buy at spot market (USD 65) + sunk premium (USD 4) = USD 69/bbl\text{USD } 69 / \text{bbl}. Total Cost=500,000×USD 69=USD 34,500,000(Saves USD 6.5M!)\text{Total Cost} = 500{,}000 \times \text{USD } 69 = \mathbf{\text{USD } 34{,}500{,}000} \quad \text{(Saves USD 6.5M!)}
    • 3. Zero-Cost Collar:
      • Call expires worthless; counterparty exercises Put option forcing firm to buy at USD 76.
        Total Cost=500,000×USD 76=USD 38,000,000\text{Total Cost} = 500{,}000 \times \text{USD } 76 = \mathbf{\text{USD } 38{,}000{,}000}

    b. Strategic Evaluation of Hedging Instruments

    Hedging Strategy Upside Risk Protection Downside Market Participation Upfront Cash Outflow
    Futures Complete protection (Locked at $82) Zero participation in price drops Zero upfront (requires margin buffer)
    Call Option Complete protection (Capped at $86) 100% participation below $82 High upfront cost ($2 Million cash)
    Zero-Cost Collar Good protection (Capped at $84) Floor at $76 (moderate participation) Zero cash outflow

    Recommendation: The Zero-Cost Collar is optimal: it caps maximum exposure at USD 84 without requiring USD 2 million in cash premiums from working capital.


    c. Basis Risk in Nepalese Fuel Imports

    • Basis Risk: The risk that the price difference between the derivative benchmark (SGX Platt’s Singapore fuel) and the physical delivery cost in Nepal fluctuates unpredictably.
    • Drivers: Overland tanker transport costs from Haldia/Barauni to Raxaul, Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) refinery processing margins, transit port demurrage, and USD/NPR currency fluctuations.