Board paper

Fundamentals Of Finance 2026 Board Question Paper

FIN 206 · Fundamentals of Finance

Programme
BBA-F
Academic year
Semester 3
Exam year
2026 AD
Sitting
regular
Full marks
100
Duration
180 minutes

Tribhuvan University

Faculty of Management

Office of the Dean

2026 AD / Regular Examination

Course: FIN 206 · Fundamentals of Finance

Level: Bachelor of Business Administration in Finance (BBA-F) · Semester 3

Full Marks: 100

Time: 3 hrs.

Candidates are required to give their answers in their own words as far as practicable. The figures in the margin indicate full marks.

Section A

Brief Answer Questions :

[10*2=20]
  1. Define the term finance.

    [2]
    View model solution

    Definition of Finance:

    Finance is defined as the art and science of managing money, capital, and financial resources. It encompasses the processes, institutions, markets, and instruments involved in the transfer of funds among individuals, businesses, and governments.

    At a managerial level, finance addresses three fundamental decisions:

    1. Investment Decision: Determining which long-term and short-term assets the firm should acquire (capital budgeting and working capital management).
    2. Financing Decision: Determining the optimal mix of debt and equity capital to fund assets (capital structure).
    3. Dividend Decision: Determining what proportion of earnings to distribute to shareholders versus reinvesting for future growth.
  2. Write the meaning of treasury bill.

    [2]
    View model solution

    Meaning of Treasury Bill (T-Bill):

    A Treasury Bill (T-Bill) is a short-term, negotiable debt obligation issued by a sovereign government (such as Nepal Rastra Bank on behalf of the Government of Nepal) to finance short-term budgetary deficits and conduct monetary operations.

    Key Features:

    • Maturity: Money market instrument with maturities typically ranging from 28 days, 91 days, 182 days, up to 364 days.
    • Zero-Coupon Instrument: Issued at a discount to its face value and redeemed at full face value at maturity; the return to the investor is the difference between the purchase price and face value.
    • Risk-Free: Backed by the full faith and credit of the sovereign government, carrying zero default risk.
  3. Mention the name of four types of financial statements.

    [2]
    View model solution

    Four Core Financial Statements:

    According to International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) and Nepal Financial Reporting Standards (NFRS), the four fundamental financial statements are:

    1. Balance Sheet (Statement of Financial Position): Reports the firm’s assets, liabilities, and shareholders’ equity at a specific point in time.
    2. Income Statement (Statement of Profit or Loss): Summarizes revenues, expenses, and net profit or loss generated over an accounting period.
    3. Statement of Cash Flows: Details cash inflows and outflows categorized into operating, investing, and financing activities over the period.
    4. Statement of Changes in Equity: Reconciles the opening and closing balances of owners’ equity, detailing contributed capital, net earnings, and dividends paid.
  4. What is meant by default risk?

    [2]
    View model solution

    Meaning of Default Risk:

    Default Risk (also termed credit risk) is the probability that an issuer of a debt instrument or a borrower will fail to make scheduled interest payments or principal repayments on time and in full according to the debt contract.

    • Risk Premium: Investors demand a higher expected yield—termed the Default Risk Premium (DRP)—to compensate for bearing higher default risk:
      Nominal Rate (r)=r+IP+DRP+LP+MRP\text{Nominal Rate } (r) = r^* + IP + DRP + LP + MRP
    • Assessment: Measured by independent credit rating agencies (e.g., ICRA Nepal, CARE Ratings Nepal). Sovereign government securities are deemed to have zero default risk (DRP=0DRP = 0), whereas corporate bonds carry positive DRP depending on the borrower’s credit quality.
  5. What is the difference between an annuity and a perpetuity?

    [2]
    View model solution

    Difference Between Annuity and Perpetuity:

    Dimension Annuity Perpetuity
    Definition A series of equal, periodic cash flows occurring for a fixed, finite number of periods (nn). A stream of equal, periodic cash flows that continues indefinitely into perpetuity (n=n = \infty).
    Duration Finite duration (e.g., 5 years, 20 years). Infinite duration (perpetual).
    Present Value Formula PVA=PMT×[1(1+r)nr]PV_A = PMT \times \left[\frac{1 - (1+r)^{-n}}{r}\right] PVP=PMTrPV_P = \frac{PMT}{r}
    Future Value Computable: FVA=PMT×[(1+r)n1r]FV_A = PMT \times \left[\frac{(1+r)^n - 1}{r}\right] Undefined (approaches infinity as nn \to \infty).
    Typical Examples Car loan EMIs, term mortgages, 10-year bond coupons. Preferred stock dividends, British Consols, perpetual endowments.
  6. How do you compute dividend yield? Illustrate.

    [2]
    View model solution

    Computation and Illustration of Dividend Yield:

    1. Meaning and Formula: Dividend yield measures the cash income earned per share as a percentage of the stock’s current market price:

    Dividend Yield=Annual Dividend per Share (D1 or D0)Current Market Price per Share (P0)×100%\text{Dividend Yield} = \frac{\text{Annual Dividend per Share } (D_1 \text{ or } D_0)}{\text{Current Market Price per Share } (P_0)} \times 100\%

    2. Numerical Illustration:

    • Suppose Nepal Telecom shares are currently trading at P0=Rs 900P_0 = \text{Rs } 900.
    • The company announces a cash dividend of Rs 45\text{Rs } 45 per share for the year.
      Dividend Yield=Rs 45Rs 900×100%=5.0%\text{Dividend Yield} = \frac{\text{Rs } 45}{\text{Rs } 900} \times 100\% = 5.0\%

    This signifies that an investor earns a direct cash return of 5%5\% on the current market value of their investment, excluding capital gains.

  7. Differentiate between premium bond and discount bond.

    [2]
    View model solution

    Difference Between Premium Bond and Discount Bond:

    Characteristic Premium Bond Discount Bond
    Market Price vs Face Value Market Price exceeds Par Value (Vd>MV_d > M). Market Price is less than Par Value (Vd<MV_d < M).
    Coupon Rate vs Required Yield Coupon Rate > Required Yield (C>kdC > k_d). Coupon Rate < Required Yield (C<kdC < k_d).
    Current Yield vs YTM Coupon Rate>Current Yield>YTM\text{Coupon Rate} > \text{Current Yield} > \text{YTM}. Coupon Rate<Current Yield<YTM\text{Coupon Rate} < \text{Current Yield} < \text{YTM}.
    Price Movement Over Time Bond price depreciates gradually toward par value as maturity approaches. Bond price appreciates gradually toward par value as maturity approaches.
    Example A Rs 1,000 par bond with 12% coupon selling at Rs 1,120 when market rate is 10%. A Rs 1,000 par bond with 8% coupon selling at Rs 920 when market rate is 10%.
  8. What assumption does the normal growth model of DDM make about dividends?

    [2]
    View model solution

    Assumptions of the Normal (Constant) Growth Model of DDM:

    The normal growth model (Gordon Growth Model) of the Dividend Discount Model (DDM) assumes that:

    1. Constant Perpetual Growth: Dividends per share grow indefinitely at a constant rate (gg) each year:
      Dt=D0(1+g)tD_t = D_0(1+g)^t
    2. Growth Less Than Required Return: The perpetual growth rate (gg) must be strictly less than the investor’s required rate of return (ks>gk_s > g).
    3. Constant Retention and ROE: The firm maintains a constant dividend payout ratio and earns a constant Return on Equity (g=b×ROEg = b \times ROE).

    Under these assumptions, the intrinsic stock price is:

    P0=D1ksg=D0(1+g)ksgP_0 = \frac{D_1}{k_s - g} = \frac{D_0(1+g)}{k_s - g}

  9. How does inventory conversion period affect the size of working capital?

    [2]
    View model solution

    Impact of Inventory Conversion Period on Working Capital Size:

    The Inventory Conversion Period (ICP) is the average number of days required to convert raw materials into finished goods and sell them to customers:

    ICP=360 or 365Inventory Turnover=Inventory×360Cost of Goods Sold\text{ICP} = \frac{360 \text{ or } 365}{\text{Inventory Turnover}} = \frac{\text{Inventory} \times 360}{\text{Cost of Goods Sold}}

    Effect on Working Capital:

    • Direct Positive Relationship: A longer ICP increases both the Operating Cycle (OC = ICP + RCP) and the Cash Conversion Cycle (CCC = OC - PDP).
    • Capital Requirement: When goods sit longer in storage or processing, more cash is locked up in non-earning inventory assets. Consequently, the firm requires a larger amount of working capital and external negotiated financing to sustain daily operations.
    • Conversely, shortening ICP accelerates cash generation, reduces holding costs, and minimizes working capital requirements.
  10. Annual interest rate (quoted rate) is 8 percent. Compute effective rate if interest is compounded quarterly.

    [2]
    View model solution

    Effective Annual Rate (EAR) Under Quarterly Compounding:

    Given:

    • Quoted nominal interest rate (rnomr_{nom}) = 8%=0.088\% = 0.08
    • Compounding frequency (mm) = 44 times per year (quarterly)

    Formula:

    Effective Annual Rate (EAR)=(1+rnomm)m1\text{Effective Annual Rate (EAR)} = \left(1 + \frac{r_{nom}}{m}\right)^m - 1

    Calculation:

    EAR=(1+0.084)41\text{EAR} = \left(1 + \frac{0.08}{4}\right)^4 - 1
    EAR=(1+0.02)41=(1.02)41\text{EAR} = (1 + 0.02)^4 - 1 = (1.02)^4 - 1
    EAR=1.0824321=0.082432 or 8.24%\text{EAR} = 1.082432 - 1 = 0.082432 \text{ or } 8.24\%

    Conclusion: The effective annual interest rate compounded quarterly is 8.24% per annum.

Section B

Short Answer Questions : (Attempt any SIX Questions ) .

[6*5=30]
  1. What are financial institutions? Distinguish between depository and non-depository financial institutions.

    [5]
    View model solution

    Financial Institutions and Depository vs. Non-Depository Institutions:

    1. Concept of Financial Institutions:

    Financial institutions are specialized financial intermediaries that mobilize savings from surplus economic units (households, businesses) and channel those funds to deficit economic units (investors, entrepreneurs, governments). They facilitate liquidity, reduce transaction and information search costs, provide maturity and denomination transformation, and manage financial risks.


    2. Distinguishing Between Depository and Non-Depository Institutions:

    Comparative Dimension Depository Financial Institutions Non-Depository Financial Institutions
    Core Mobilization Mechanism Accept deposits directly from the general public which legally represent debt liabilities. Mobilize funds through contractual premiums, policy payments, unit sales, or debt securities; do not accept regular bank deposits.
    Primary Sources of Funds Current (checking), savings, fixed, and call deposits. Insurance premiums, pension contributions, mutual fund unit sales, debenture issuance.
    Regulatory Framework (Nepal) Regulated under the Bank and Financial Institutions Act (BAFIA) 2073 by Nepal Rastra Bank (NRB). Regulated by specialized bodies (e.g., Nepal Insurance Authority, SEBON) according to industry acts.
    Classifications in Nepal Class ‘A’ Commercial Banks, Class ‘B’ Development Banks, Class ‘C’ Finance Companies, Class ‘D’ Microfinance. Life/Non-life Insurance Companies, Employee Provident Fund (EPF), Citizen Investment Trust (CIT), Mutual Funds.
    Liquidity & Withdrawal High on-demand liquidity (customers can withdraw savings/current funds via ATMs and cheques anytime). Fixed contractual maturities; funds are locked in until retirement, policy maturity, or contract terms.
    Primary Use of Funds Short-to-medium term business loans, retail consumer financing, working capital lines. Long-term capital market investments, government bonds, corporate debentures, infrastructure equity.
  2. Explain the application of cost of capital in financial decision making.

    [5]
    View model solution

    Application of Cost of Capital in Financial Decision Making:

    The Cost of Capital represents the minimum hurdle rate of return that a firm must earn on its investments to maintain its market value and satisfy the return expectations of its capital providers (debt holders, preferred stockholders, and equity investors).


    Key Applications in Financial Decision Making:

    1. Capital Budgeting and Investment Appraisal (Hurdle Rate):

      • The Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) serves as the benchmark discount rate in Net Present Value (NPV) calculations:
        NPV=t=1nCFt(1+WACC)tCF0NPV = \sum_{t=1}^n \frac{CF_t}{(1 + WACC)^t} - CF_0
      • A project is accepted only if its NPV>0NPV > 0 or its Internal Rate of Return (IRRIRR) exceeds the WACC (IRR>WACCIRR > WACC).
    2. Designing Optimal Capital Structure:

      • Management uses the cost of each individual component (kd,kp,ksk_d, k_p, k_s) to identify the debt-equity mix that minimizes overall WACC while maximizing the firm’s total enterprise value.
    3. Working Capital Management:

      • Evaluates the carrying cost of holding short-term assets (inventories, accounts receivable). The cost of capital determines whether offering credit terms or holding safety stocks creates economic value.
    4. Dividend Policy Decisions:

      • Guides the decision to retain earnings versus distributing cash dividends. If internal reinvestment yields a return exceeding the cost of equity (ROE>ksROE > k_s), retention is wealth-maximizing.
    5. Performance Evaluation (Economic Value Added - EVA):

      • Cost of capital measures true economic profitability:
        EVA=NOPAT(Total Invested Capital×WACC)EVA = \text{NOPAT} - (\text{Total Invested Capital} \times WACC)
      • A positive EVA indicates wealth creation above capital charges.
  3. Explain the concept and types of working capital.

    [5]
    View model solution

    Concept and Types of Working Capital:

    1. Concept of Working Capital:

    Working capital represents the funds invested in a firm’s short-term operating assets that cycle through daily business operations. It ensures that the enterprise maintains sufficient liquidity to satisfy maturing short-term obligations while supporting continuous production and sales activities.


    2. Classifications of Working Capital:

    A. Based on Accounting/Balance Sheet Concept:

    1. Gross Working Capital:
      • Refers to the firm’s total investment in all Current Assets (Cash, Marketable Securities, Accounts Receivable, Inventories, Prepaid Expenses).
      • Reflects the total quantum of short-term resources mobilized.
    2. Net Working Capital (NWC):
      • Defined as the mathematical difference between Current Assets and Current Liabilities:
        NWC=Current AssetsCurrent LiabilitiesNWC = \text{Current Assets} - \text{Current Liabilities}
      • A positive NWC indicates that current assets are partially financed by long-term funds, providing a liquidity buffer.

    B. Based on Time and Operational Concept:

    1. Permanent (Fixed) Working Capital:
      • The minimum baseline level of current assets (safety cash, minimum pipeline inventory, base customer credit) permanently required to maintain uninterrupted operations regardless of business cycle fluctuations.
      • Should ideally be financed through long-term capital (equity or long-term debt).
    2. Temporary (Variable/Seasonal) Working Capital:
      • The additional working capital needed to support seasonal spikes or cyclical increases in sales volume (e.g., extra inventory build-up for Dashain/Tihar festival sales).
      • Typically financed via short-term credit (bank overdrafts, short-term commercial loans).
  4. Compute future value at the end of 5th year of following cash flow stream assuming bank offers 10 percent annual interest. a. Rs 500,000 is deposited at present. b. Rs 800,000 is deposited at the end of the second year. c. Rs 100,000 is deposited at the end of each year for next five years.

    [5]
    View model solution

    Future Value Calculation for Cash Flow Streams at Year 5:

    Given:

    • Annual interest rate (ii) = 10%=0.1010\% = 0.10
    • Terminal horizon (nn) = 55 years

    Step-by-step Valuation:

    a. Lump Sum Rs 500,000 Deposited at Present (t=0t = 0):

    • Compounds for the full 55 years:
      FV5(a)=PV×(1+i)n=500,000×(1.10)5FV_5(a) = PV \times (1 + i)^n = 500,000 \times (1.10)^5
      FV5(a)=500,000×1.61051=Rs 805,255.00FV_5(a) = 500,000 \times 1.61051 = \text{Rs } 805,255.00

    b. Lump Sum Rs 800,000 Deposited at End of Year 2 (t=2t = 2):

    • Compounds for remaining period (52)=3(5 - 2) = 3 years:
      FV5(b)=PV×(1+i)52=800,000×(1.10)3FV_5(b) = PV \times (1 + i)^{5-2} = 800,000 \times (1.10)^3
      FV5(b)=800,000×1.33100=Rs 1,064,800.00FV_5(b) = 800,000 \times 1.33100 = \text{Rs } 1,064,800.00

    c. Ordinary Annuity of Rs 100,000 Deposited at End of Each Year for 5 Years (t=1 to 5t = 1 \text{ to } 5):

    • Uses Future Value of an Ordinary Annuity factor:
      FVA5(c)=PMT×[(1+i)n1i]=100,000×[(1.10)510.10]FVA_5(c) = PMT \times \left[\frac{(1 + i)^n - 1}{i}\right] = 100,000 \times \left[\frac{(1.10)^5 - 1}{0.10}\right]
      FVA5(c)=100,000×[1.6105110.10]=100,000×6.1051=Rs 610,510.00FVA_5(c) = 100,000 \times \left[\frac{1.61051 - 1}{0.10}\right] = 100,000 \times 6.1051 = \text{Rs } 610,510.00

    Combined Total Future Value at End of Year 5:

    Total FV5=FV5(a)+FV5(b)+FVA5(c)\text{Total } FV_5 = FV_5(a) + FV_5(b) + FVA_5(c)
    Total FV5=Rs 805,255+Rs 1,064,800+Rs 610,510=Rs 2,480,565.00\text{Total } FV_5 = \text{Rs } 805,255 + \text{Rs } 1,064,800 + \text{Rs } 610,510 = \mathbf{\text{Rs } 2,480,565.00}

    Summary Table:

    Component Deposit Timing Amount (Rs) Compounding Periods Future Value Factor FV at Year 5 (Rs)
    a. Present Lump Sum t=0t = 0 500,000 5 years 1.61051 805,255.00
    b. Year 2 Lump Sum t=2t = 2 800,000 3 years 1.33100 1,064,800.00
    c. 5-Year Annuity t=15t = 1 \dots 5 100,000/yr 5 periods 6.10510 610,510.00
    Total Accumulated Value 2,480,565.00
  5. Calculate the value of following bonds assuming investors’ required rate is 10 percent. a. Rs 1000 par value bond with 9 percent coupon. b. Rs 1000 par value zero coupon bond with 7 years of maturity period. c. Rs 1000 par value, 12 percent coupon bond with 10 years of maturity period.

    [5]
    View model solution

    Valuation of Bonds:

    Common Parameter:

    • Investor’s required rate of return (kdk_d) = 10%=0.1010\% = 0.10

    a. Bond A: Rs 1,000 Par Value with 9% Coupon (Perpetual / Non-Maturity):

    (Note: As no maturity period is specified, it represents a perpetual bond / consol)

    • Annual Coupon Payment (II) = Rs 1,000×9%=Rs 90\text{Rs } 1,000 \times 9\% = \text{Rs } 90Vd=Ikd=Rs 900.10=Rs 900.00V_d = \frac{I}{k_d} = \frac{\text{Rs } 90}{0.10} = \mathbf{\text{Rs } 900.00}$ (If treated as a 1-year holding bond: Vd=90+10001.10=Rs 990.91V_d = \frac{90 + 1000}{1.10} = \text{Rs } 990.91. The perpetual formulation of Rs 900 is standard TU practice).

    b. Bond B: Rs 1,000 Par Value Zero Coupon Bond with 7 Years Maturity:

    • Par Value (MM) = Rs 1,000\text{Rs } 1,000, Maturity (nn) = 77 years, Annual Coupon (II) = Rs 0\text{Rs } 0Vd=M(1+kd)n=M×PVIF(10%,7)V_d = \frac{M}{(1 + k_d)^n} = M \times PVIF(10\%, 7)$
      PVIF(10%,7)=1(1.10)7=11.9487170.513158PVIF(10\%, 7) = \frac{1}{(1.10)^7} = \frac{1}{1.948717} \approx 0.513158
      Vd=1,000×0.513158=Rs 513.16V_d = 1,000 \times 0.513158 = \mathbf{\text{Rs } 513.16}

    c. Bond C: Rs 1,000 Par Value, 12% Coupon Bond with 10 Years Maturity:

    • Par Value (MM) = Rs 1,000\text{Rs } 1,000, Coupon (II) = 1,000×12%=Rs 1201,000 \times 12\% = \text{Rs } 120, Maturity (nn) = 1010 years
      Vd=I×PVIFA(kd,n)+M×PVIF(kd,n)V_d = I \times PVIFA(k_d, n) + M \times PVIF(k_d, n)

    Factors at 10% for 10 Years:

    • PVIF(10%,10)=1(1.10)10=0.385543PVIF(10\%, 10) = \frac{1}{(1.10)^{10}} = 0.385543
    • PVIFA(10%,10)=10.3855430.10=6.144567PVIFA(10\%, 10) = \frac{1 - 0.385543}{0.10} = 6.144567

    Calculation:

    Vd=(120×6.144567)+(1,000×0.385543)V_d = (120 \times 6.144567) + (1,000 \times 0.385543)
    Vd=Rs 737.35+Rs 385.54=Rs 1,122.89V_d = \text{Rs } 737.35 + \text{Rs } 385.54 = \mathbf{\text{Rs } 1,122.89}

    (Because coupon rate 12% exceeds required yield 10%, Bond C sells at a premium above par).

  6. The prevailing selling price of a stock of Paiyukhola Fabric is Rs 210 and recently paid dividend is Rs 20 per share (D0 = Rs 20). The earnings, dividend and price are expected to grow at rate of 5 percent per year. What is the required rate of return on company’s stock? What is the expected price of a stock one year from today?

    [5]
    View model solution

    Required Rate of Return and Expected Stock Price for Paiyukhola Fabric:

    Given:

    • Current market price per share (P0P_0) = Rs 210\text{Rs } 210
    • Recently paid dividend (D0D_0) = Rs 20\text{Rs } 20 per share
    • Expected constant growth rate in earnings, dividends, and price (gg) = 5%=0.055\% = 0.05

    1. Calculation of Expected Dividend Next Year (D1D_1):

    D1=D0×(1+g)=Rs 20×(1+0.05)=Rs 21.00D_1 = D_0 \times (1 + g) = \text{Rs } 20 \times (1 + 0.05) = \text{Rs } 21.00

    2. Calculation of Required Rate of Return (ksk_s):

    Using the Gordon Constant Growth Model:

    ks=D1P0+gk_s = \frac{D_1}{P_0} + g
    ks=Rs 21Rs 210+0.05=0.10+0.05=0.15=15.0%k_s = \frac{\text{Rs } 21}{\text{Rs } 210} + 0.05 = 0.10 + 0.05 = 0.15 = \mathbf{15.0\%}

    The required rate of return consists of a 10% dividend yield and a 5% capital gains yield.


    3. Expected Price of the Stock One Year From Today (P1P_1):

    Method 1 (Direct Growth of Stock Price):

    Under constant growth conditions, stock price grows at the constant growth rate gg:

    P1=P0×(1+g)=Rs 210×(1+0.05)=Rs 220.50P_1 = P_0 \times (1 + g) = \text{Rs } 210 \times (1 + 0.05) = \mathbf{\text{Rs } 220.50}

    Method 2 (Gordon Model at Year 1):

    P1=D2ksgP_1 = \frac{D_2}{k_s - g}

    Where D2=D1×(1+g)=21×1.05=Rs 22.05D_2 = D_1 \times (1 + g) = 21 \times 1.05 = \text{Rs } 22.05:

    P1=Rs 22.050.150.05=Rs 22.050.10=Rs 220.50P_1 = \frac{\text{Rs } 22.05}{0.15 - 0.05} = \frac{\text{Rs } 22.05}{0.10} = \mathbf{\text{Rs } 220.50}

    Conclusion:

    • Required rate of return on the stock = 15.0%
    • Expected stock price one year from today = Rs 220.50
  7. Siddhartha Manufacturing Company turns its inventory 8 times each year, has an average payment period of 35 days, and collection period of 60 days. The company’s annual investment for operating cycle is Rs 3.5 million. Assuming a 360-day year. a. Calculate the company’s operating and cash conversion cycle. b. Calculate the company’s daily cash operating expenses. How much negotiated financing is required to support its cash conversion cycle?

    [5]
    View model solution

    Siddhartha Manufacturing Company — Operating Cycle & CCC Analysis:

    Given:

    • Inventory turnover ratio (ITIT) = 88 times per year
    • Average payment period (PDPPDP or APPAPP) = 3535 days
    • Average collection period / receivable collection period (RCPRCP or DSODSO) = 6060 days
    • Annual investment for operating cycle (annual cash operating expenses) = Rs 3.5 million=Rs 3,500,000\text{Rs } 3.5 \text{ million} = \text{Rs } 3,500,000
    • Base year = 360360 days

    Part a: Calculation of Operating Cycle (OC) and Cash Conversion Cycle (CCC):

    1. Inventory Conversion Period (ICP):

    ICP=360Inventory Turnover=3608=45 daysICP = \frac{360}{\text{Inventory Turnover}} = \frac{360}{8} = 45 \text{ days}

    2. Operating Cycle (OC): The operating cycle measures the time between acquiring raw materials and collecting cash from customers:

    OC=ICP+RCP=45 days+60 days=105 daysOC = ICP + RCP = 45 \text{ days} + 60 \text{ days} = \mathbf{105 \text{ days}}

    3. Cash Conversion Cycle (CCC): The cash conversion cycle measures the net duration cash remains tied up in operations after accounting for supplier trade credit:

    CCC=OCPDP=105 days35 days=70 daysCCC = OC - PDP = 105 \text{ days} - 35 \text{ days} = \mathbf{70 \text{ days}}


    Part b: Daily Cash Operating Expenses and Required Negotiated Financing:

    1. Daily Cash Operating Expenses:

    Daily Cash Expenses=Annual Cash Operating Expenses360\text{Daily Cash Expenses} = \frac{\text{Annual Cash Operating Expenses}}{360}
    Daily Cash Expenses=Rs 3,500,000360=Rs 9,722.22 per day\text{Daily Cash Expenses} = \frac{\text{Rs } 3,500,000}{360} = \mathbf{\text{Rs } 9,722.22 \text{ per day}}

    2. Negotiated Financing Required to Support CCC: The amount of working capital financing required to sustain operations during the cash conversion cycle:

    Negotiated Financing Required=Daily Cash Operating Expenses×CCC\text{Negotiated Financing Required} = \text{Daily Cash Operating Expenses} \times CCC
    Negotiated Financing Required=Rs 9,722.22×70=Rs 680,555.56Rs 680,556\text{Negotiated Financing Required} = \text{Rs } 9,722.22 \times 70 = \mathbf{\text{Rs } 680,555.56} \approx \mathbf{\text{Rs } 680,556}


    Summary of Results:

    • Operating Cycle (OC): 105 days
    • Cash Conversion Cycle (CCC): 70 days
    • Daily Cash Operating Expenses: Rs 9,722.22
    • Negotiated Financing Required: Rs 680,556

Section C

Long Answer Questions : (Attempt any THREE Questions )

[3*10=30]
  1. Explain the financial goal of the firm. Also discuss its key features.

    [10]
    View model solution

    Financial Goals of the Firm and Key Features:

    1. The Primary Financial Goal: Wealth Maximization:

    In modern corporate financial management, the universally accepted primary financial goal of a business firm is Shareholder Wealth Maximization (maximizing the intrinsic market value of the firm’s common stock).

    While historically firms prioritized Profit Maximization, modern financial theory rejects profit maximization as the sole corporate objective due to its critical limitations.


    2. Comparison: Profit Maximization vs. Wealth Maximization:

    Criterion Profit Maximization Wealth / Value Maximization
    Core Objective Maximize accounting net profit or EPS within a single accounting period. Maximize the net present value of all future cash flows accruing to owners (P0P_0).
    Time Horizon Short-term orientation (often compromises R&D and maintenance). Long-term perspective encompassing sustainable enterprise viability.
    Time Value of Money Ignores timing of cash flows (treats a Rupee today identical to a Rupee in 5 years). Fully incorporates discounting via the firm’s cost of capital.
    Risk Consideration Completely ignores business and financial risks associated with income streams. Explicitly adjusts for operational, market, and credit risks in required returns.
    Measurement Metric Accounting profit (subject to manipulation through accounting policy choices). Net economic cash flows and market value of equity.

    3. Key Features of the Wealth Maximization Goal:

    1. Clear, Operational Decision Criterion:

      • Provides an objective decision rule: Accept investments that yield a positive Net Present Value (NPV>0NPV > 0), as they directly increase shareholders’ wealth:
        ΔW=NPV=PV(Cash Inflows)PV(Cash Outflows)\Delta W = NPV = PV(\text{Cash Inflows}) - PV(\text{Cash Outflows})
    2. Explicit Incorporation of Risk and Uncertainty:

      • Higher risk projects are evaluated with higher hurdle rates (kk), ensuring that investors are appropriately compensated for volatility and default exposure.
    3. Recognition of the Time Value of Money:

      • Recognizes that immediate cash inflows possess greater economic utility than distant future inflows due to reinvestment opportunities and purchasing power loss.
    4. Harmonious with Broader Stakeholder Interests:

      • In a competitive market, a firm cannot maximize stock price in the long run if it mistreats customers, underpays employees, or violates environmental norms. Wealth maximization requires building sustainable competitive advantage, customer trust, and operational efficiency.
  2. Assume that it is now January 1, 2025. The rate of inflation is expected to be 5 percent throughout year 2025. However, investors expect the inflation rate to be 6 percent in 2026, 7 percent in 2027 and 8 percent in 2028. The real risk-free is 2 percent. Assume that no maturity risk premiums are required on bonds with 5 years or less to maturity. The current interest rate of 5-year T-bonds is 9 percent. a. What is the average expected inflation rate over the next 4 years? b. What should be the interest rate on 4-year T-bonds? c. What is the expected inflation rate in 2029 or year 5? d. How does maturity risk affect the interest rate of a bond?

    [10]
    View model solution

    Interest Rate and Inflation Premium Analysis:

    Given:

    • Date: January 1, 2025
    • Expected Inflation Rates:
      • Year 1 (2025): I1=5%I_1 = 5\%
      • Year 2 (2026): I2=6%I_2 = 6\%
      • Year 3 (2027): I3=7%I_3 = 7\%
      • Year 4 (2028): I4=8%I_4 = 8\%
    • Real risk-free rate (rr^*) = 2%2\% (constant across all maturities)
    • Maturity risk premium (MRPMRP) = 00 for bonds with maturities n5n \le 5 years
    • Current interest rate on 5-year Treasury bonds (r5r_5) = 9%9\%

    Part a: Average Expected Inflation Rate Over Next 4 Years (IP4IP_4):

    The 4-year inflation premium is the arithmetic average of expected annual inflation rates:

    IP4=I1+I2+I3+I44IP_4 = \frac{I_1 + I_2 + I_3 + I_4}{4}
    IP4=5%+6%+7%+8%4=26%4=6.50%IP_4 = \frac{5\% + 6\% + 7\% + 8\%}{4} = \frac{26\%}{4} = \mathbf{6.50\%}


    Part b: Interest Rate on 4-Year Treasury Bonds (r4r_4):

    Since Treasury bonds carry zero default risk (DRP=0DRP = 0), zero liquidity premium (LP=0LP = 0), and given MRP4=0MRP_4 = 0:

    r4=r+IP4+MRP4r_4 = r^* + IP_4 + MRP_4
    r4=2.0%+6.50%+0%=8.50%r_4 = 2.0\% + 6.50\% + 0\% = \mathbf{8.50\%}


    Part c: Expected Inflation Rate in Year 5 (2029) (I5I_5):

    For a 5-year Treasury bond:

    r5=r+IP5+MRP5r_5 = r^* + IP_5 + MRP_5
    Given r5=9%r_5 = 9\%, r=2%r^* = 2\%, and MRP5=0MRP_5 = 0:
    9%=2%+IP5+0    IP5=9%2%=7.0%9\% = 2\% + IP_5 + 0 \implies IP_5 = 9\% - 2\% = 7.0\%

    The 5-year inflation premium is:

    IP5=I1+I2+I3+I4+I55=7.0%IP_5 = \frac{I_1 + I_2 + I_3 + I_4 + I_5}{5} = 7.0\%
    26%+I55=7.0%\frac{26\% + I_5}{5} = 7.0\%
    26%+I5=35.0%26\% + I_5 = 35.0\%
    I5=35.0%26.0%=9.0%I_5 = 35.0\% - 26.0\% = \mathbf{9.0\%}

    The expected inflation rate in 2029 (Year 5) is 9.0%.


    Part d: How Maturity Risk Affects the Interest Rate of a Bond:

    • Price Risk (Interest Rate Risk): Bond prices move inversely with market interest rates. Longer-term bonds exhibit significantly higher price sensitivity to interest rate shifts than short-term bonds.
    • Maturity Risk Premium (MRP): To induce risk-averse investors to hold longer-term debt, issuers must offer an additional return premium called the Maturity Risk Premium.
    • Impact on Yield Curve: As maturity (nn) extends, MRPMRP increases. Consequently, even when future inflation is expected to remain constant, the inclusion of MRPMRP produces an upward-sloping yield curve.
  3. The management of Sahara Resort has decided to buy a computer taking loan of Rs 300,000 for 3 years from City bank. The loan bears an annual interest of 12 percent and calls for equal annual installment payments at the end of each of the three years. a. Calculate amount of annual payment. b. Prepare loan amortization schedule. c. If banks calls for monthly payment, what will be equal monthly installment (EMI)? [3+4+3]

    [10]
    View model solution

    Sahara Resort — Loan Amortization Schedule and EMI Calculation:

    Given:

    • Principal Loan Amount (PVPV) = Rs 300,000\text{Rs } 300,000
    • Loan tenure (nn) = 33 years
    • Annual interest rate (ii) = 12%=0.1212\% = 0.12

    Part a: Calculation of Equal Annual Installment Payment (PMT):

    PV=PMT×PVIFA(i,n)PV = PMT \times PVIFA(i, n)
    PVIFA(12%,3)=1(1+0.12)30.12=1(1.12)30.12=10.7117800.12=2.401831PVIFA(12\%, 3) = \frac{1 - (1 + 0.12)^{-3}}{0.12} = \frac{1 - (1.12)^{-3}}{0.12} = \frac{1 - 0.711780}{0.12} = 2.401831
    PMT=Rs 300,0002.401831=Rs 124,904.72PMT = \frac{\text{Rs } 300,000}{2.401831} = \mathbf{\text{Rs } 124,904.72}

    Part b: Loan Amortization Schedule:

    Year Beginning Balance (Rs) Annual Payment (Rs) Interest Payment (12%) (Rs) Principal Repayment (Rs) Ending Balance (Rs)
    1 300,000.00 124,904.72 36,000.00 88,904.72 211,095.28
    2 211,095.28 124,904.72 25,331.43 99,573.29 111,521.99
    3 111,521.99 124,904.63* 13,382.64 111,521.99 0.00
    Total 374,714.07 74,714.07 300,000.00

    *Note: Year 3 payment is adjusted by -Rs 0.09 to eliminate rounding residual and ensure exactly zero ending balance (111,521.99+13,382.64=124,904.63111,521.99 + 13,382.64 = 124,904.63).


    Part c: Equal Monthly Installment (EMI) if Compounded Monthly:

    • Number of monthly periods (NN) = 3×12=363 \times 12 = 36 months
    • Monthly interest rate (rmr_m) = 12%12=1%=0.01\frac{12\%}{12} = 1\% = 0.01 per month
    EMI=PV×rm×(1+rm)N(1+rm)N1=PVPVIFA(1%,36)\text{EMI} = \frac{PV \times r_m \times (1 + r_m)^N}{(1 + r_m)^N - 1} = \frac{PV}{PVIFA(1\%, 36)}
    PVIFA(1%,36)=1(1.01)360.01=10.6989250.01=30.107505PVIFA(1\%, 36) = \frac{1 - (1.01)^{-36}}{0.01} = \frac{1 - 0.698925}{0.01} = 30.107505
    EMI=Rs 300,00030.107505=Rs 9,964.29 per month\text{EMI} = \frac{\text{Rs } 300,000}{30.107505} = \mathbf{\text{Rs } 9,964.29 \text{ per month}}

    Summary:

    • Equal Annual Installment: Rs 124,904.72
    • Equal Monthly Installment (EMI): Rs 9,964.29
  4. Shalimar Paints has the following capital structure which it considers to be optimal.

    Debt 30%
    Preferred stock 15%
    Common stock 55%

    The company’s tax rate is 30 percent, and the investor expected earnings and dividends to grow at a constant rate of 4 percent in the future. The company paid a dividend of Rs 20 per share last year, and its stock currently sells at a price of Rs 208 per share. These terms would apply to new security offerings. New common stock would have a floatation cost of 5 percent. New preferred stock could be sold at a price of Rs 100 per share with a dividend of Rs 9. Floatation cost of Rs 6 per share would be incurred. Debt could be sold at an annual interest rate of 10 percent. a. Find the component cost of debt, preferred stock, retained earnings, and new common stock. b. Calculate the WACC assuming common stock financing requirements are all met by retained earnings.

    [10]
    View model solution

    Shalimar Paints — Component Costs and WACC Analysis:

    Given Capital Structure Weights:

    • Weight of Debt (wdw_d) = 30%=0.3030\% = 0.30
    • Weight of Preferred Stock (wpw_p) = 15%=0.1515\% = 0.15
    • Weight of Common Stock / Equity (wsw_s) = 55%=0.5555\% = 0.55
    • Corporate Tax Rate (TT) = 30%=0.3030\% = 0.30

    Part a: Component Costs of Capital:

    1. Component Cost of Debt (kdk_d):

    • Pre-tax interest rate (rdr_d) = 10%10\%kd=rd×(1T)=10%×(10.30)=7.00%k_d = r_d \times (1 - T) = 10\% \times (1 - 0.30) = \mathbf{7.00\%}$

    2. Component Cost of Preferred Stock (kpk_p):

    • Selling price (PpP_p) = Rs 100\text{Rs } 100
    • Preferred dividend (DpD_p) = Rs 9.00\text{Rs } 9.00
    • Flotation cost per share (FF) = Rs 6.00\text{Rs } 6.00
    • Net proceeds (NPpNP_p) = 1006=Rs 94100 - 6 = \text{Rs } 94kp=DpPpF=Rs 9Rs 94=0.09574=9.57%k_p = \frac{D_p}{P_p - F} = \frac{\text{Rs } 9}{\text{Rs } 94} = 0.09574 = \mathbf{9.57\%}$

    3. Component Cost of Retained Earnings (ksk_s / Internal Equity):

    • Current stock price (P0P_0) = Rs 208\text{Rs } 208
    • Last dividend (D0D_0) = Rs 20\text{Rs } 20
    • Constant growth rate (gg) = 4%=0.044\% = 0.04
    • Expected dividend next year (D1D_1) = D0×(1+g)=20×(1.04)=Rs 20.80D_0 \times (1 + g) = 20 \times (1.04) = \text{Rs } 20.80ks=D1P0+g=Rs 20.80Rs 208+0.04=0.10+0.04=0.14=14.00%k_s = \frac{D_1}{P_0} + g = \frac{\text{Rs } 20.80}{\text{Rs } 208} + 0.04 = 0.10 + 0.04 = 0.14 = \mathbf{14.00\%}$

    4. Component Cost of New Common Stock (kek_e / External Equity):

    • Flotation cost percentage (FF) = 5%=0.055\% = 0.05
    • Net proceeds per share = P0×(1F)=208×(10.05)=Rs 197.60P_0 \times (1 - F) = 208 \times (1 - 0.05) = \text{Rs } 197.60ke=D1P0(1F)+g=Rs 20.80Rs 197.60+0.04k_e = \frac{D_1}{P_0(1 - F)} + g = \frac{\text{Rs } 20.80}{\text{Rs } 197.60} + 0.04$
      ke=0.105263+0.04=0.145263=14.53%k_e = 0.105263 + 0.04 = 0.145263 = \mathbf{14.53\%}

    Part b: Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) Using Retained Earnings:

    Assuming common equity financing is entirely met through internal retained earnings (ks=14.00%k_s = 14.00\%):

    WACC=(wd×kd)+(wp×kp)+(ws×ks)WACC = (w_d \times k_d) + (w_p \times k_p) + (w_s \times k_s)
    WACC=(0.30×7.00%)+(0.15×9.57%)+(0.55×14.00%)WACC = (0.30 \times 7.00\%) + (0.15 \times 9.57\%) + (0.55 \times 14.00\%)
    WACC=2.10%+1.436%+7.70%=11.236%11.24%WACC = 2.10\% + 1.436\% + 7.70\% = \mathbf{11.236\%} \approx \mathbf{11.24\%}

    Summary Table:

    Capital Component Weight (wiw_i) Component Cost (kik_i) Weighted Cost (wi×kiw_i \times k_i)
    Debt 0.30 7.00% 2.100%
    Preferred Stock 0.15 9.57% 1.436%
    Retained Earnings 0.55 14.00% 7.700%
    WACC 1.00 11.24%

Section D

Comprehensive Answer / Case / Situation Analysis Questions :

[20]